A client who is currently receiving azithromycin for an infection reports flu-like symptoms for the past couple of days and a new onset of red and purplish rash with blisters on the skin and mucous membranes of the mouth, nose, eyes, and genitals. Which condition presents with these findings?
Endocarditis.
Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
Pityriasis rosea.
Anaphylactic reaction.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Endocarditis is an infection of the inner lining of the heart and heart valves. It typically presents with fever, heart murmur, fatigue, and sometimes petechiae or splinter hemorrhages, but it does not cause widespread red-purple blistering rashes on the skin and mucous membranes. Therefore, this presentation does not match endocarditis.
B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) is a severe, potentially life-threatening hypersensitivity reaction usually triggered by medications such as antibiotics (including azithromycin), anticonvulsants, or NSAIDs. SJS typically begins with flu-like symptoms such as fever, malaise, and body aches, followed by a painful, rapidly progressing rash that involves red or purplish macules, blisters, and erosions affecting both the skin and mucous membranes of the mouth, eyes, nose, and genitals. This presentation closely matches the client’s symptoms. Immediate discontinuation of the offending drug and urgent medical care are required.
C. Pityriasis rosea is a mild, self-limiting skin condition that typically presents as a herald patch followed by a generalized oval-shaped rash on the trunk and proximal limbs. It does not involve mucous membranes or blistering, nor does it usually accompany flu-like symptoms.
D. An anaphylactic reaction is an acute, systemic allergic response that develops rapidly after exposure to an allergen, causing symptoms such as hypotension, bronchospasm, angioedema, hives, and difficulty breathing. While it is serious and requires emergency treatment, it does not typically present with mucous membrane blistering and the described rash pattern.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is []
Explanation
Rationale for Correct Choices
• Guillain-Barré syndrome: The client exhibits ascending symmetric weakness, areflexia in lower extremities, recent Campylobacter jejuni infection, and intact sensation, which are hallmark signs of Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), an acute autoimmune demyelinating disorder of the peripheral nervous system.
• Educate on disease progression: Informing the client about expected progression, potential complications, and signs requiring urgent attention (e.g., respiratory difficulty) reduces anxiety and promotes early reporting of worsening symptoms.
• Prepare client for intubation: GBS can rapidly progress to involve respiratory muscles; early preparation ensures timely intervention if respiratory compromise occurs.
• Neurological status: Monitoring for progression of weakness, sensory changes, and reflex loss helps assess disease severity and response to interventions.
• Respiratory function: Vital to detect early respiratory failure; includes monitoring oxygen saturation, tidal volume, and signs of respiratory distress.
Rationale for Incorrect Choices
• Sepsis: Client is afebrile, hemodynamically stable, and shows no signs of systemic infection; sepsis is unlikely.
• Polio: Polio is rare in countries with vaccination programs, and the client’s presentation follows infection with Campylobacter, not poliovirus.
• Muscular dystrophy: Progressive, chronic weakness from birth or early childhood differs from acute, post-infectious onset.
• Implement safety measures to prevent falls: While helpful, the priority in acute GBS is monitoring for respiratory compromise and disease progression.
• Initiate droplet precautions: GBS is not contagious; isolation is unnecessary.
• Educate client on genetic testing: GBS is acquired and autoimmune; genetic testing is irrelevant.
• Intake and output: No renal or fluid balance issues reported; not a primary monitoring parameter.
• White blood cells (WBC): No evidence of infection requiring WBC monitoring.
• Level of consciousness (LOC): Client is alert and oriented; GBS does not typically affect LOC.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Administering a prescribed albuterol inhaler may be appropriate if the client is experiencing bronchospasm or increased airway resistance. However, before giving any medication, the nurse must report and clarify the low oxygen saturation with the healthcare provider, as supplemental oxygen or other interventions may need adjustment.
B. Assessing lung sounds for signs of infection is important for ongoing evaluation, but this is not the immediate priority in a client who is currently hypoxic. Immediate attention to oxygenation takes precedence.
C. Encouraging the client to initiate a smoking cessation program is important for long-term management of emphysema, but it does not address the current acute hypoxemia.
D. Notifying the healthcare provider of the low pulse oximetry value is the most important action. A pulse oximetry of 88% in a client receiving supplemental oxygen indicates hypoxemia and may require prompt intervention, such as adjusting oxygen flow, administering bronchodilators, or further evaluation for complications like infection or exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Immediate reporting ensures timely assessment and treatment to prevent respiratory deterioration.
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