A client who is taking paroxetine reports to the nurse that the client has been nauseated since beginning the medication. Which action is indicated initially?
Reassure the client that this is an expected side effect that will improve with time.
Tell the client to contact the physician for a change in medication.
Instruct the client to stop the medication for a few days to see if the nausea goes away.
Suggest that the client take the medication with food.
The Correct Answer is D
Paroxetine is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) that increases serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft. Because approximately 90% of the body's serotonin receptors are located in the gastrointestinal tract, initial side effects frequently include nausea, diarrhea, or appetite changes as the enteric nervous system adjusts to the increased neurotransmitter activity.
Rationale:
A. It is true that nausea is an expected side effect that often resolves within 1 to 2 weeks, but simply providing reassurance is not the initial action. The nurse should first provide a practical, non-pharmacological intervention to alleviate the client's current discomfort and promote medication adherence.
B. Switching medications is a premature intervention for a common and usually transient side effect. Most SSRIs carry a similar risk of gastrointestinal upset, so the nurse should attempt conservative management strategies before suggesting the client undergo a complete change in their pharmacological regimen.
C. Instructing a client to stop an SSRI abruptly is dangerous and can lead to discontinuation syndrome, characterized by flu-like symptoms, "brain zaps," and intense anxiety. The nurse must never advise a client to alter their dosage or frequency without a specific order from a healthcare provider.
D. Taking paroxetine with food is the best initial nursing intervention. Food acts as a buffer for the gastric mucosa and can significantly decrease the nausea associated with SSRI initiation without affecting the drug's overall bioavailability or therapeutic effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Antisocial personality disorder is a cluster B pathology characterized by a pervasive pattern of disregard for the rights of others and a lack of remorse. These individuals frequently utilize manipulation and charm as compensatory mechanisms to subvert authority and gain personal advantage within the clinical environment.
Rationale:
A. Clients with antisocial traits often engage in splitting and staff pitting to bypass established boundaries. Frequent team meetings ensure uniformity in the treatment approach, which is the most effective way to neutralize the client’s attempts to exploit inconsistencies in supervision or rules.
B. Treatment plans require periodic evaluation, but clients with antisocial personality disorder rarely show rapid clinical improvement. The primary goal of the meetings is not to reward progress, but to maintain a rigid and predictable structure that prevents the client from undermining the therapeutic goals of the unit.
C. Although processing staff burnout or frustration is a secondary benefit of team collaboration, it is not the primary clinical purpose. The meeting's main objective is to prevent the client from causing disruption through manipulative behaviors that can lead to staff conflict and compromised patient care.
D. Proper handoff of care is a standard nursing practice for all patients on a psychiatric unit. However, for a client with an antisocial diagnosis, the communication must specifically focus on boundary maintenance and the prevention of manipulation, rather than just routine procedural updates.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder (often involving dyspareunia or vaginismus) requires a comprehensive diagnostic approach that bridges the physical and psychological domains. In cases involving a history of sexual trauma, the clinician must address the somatic manifestation of psychological distress while ensuring that treatable medical conditions are not overlooked. The diagnostic priority is to establish whether the pain is purely psychogenic, physiological, or a combination of both (biopsychosocial).
Rationale:
A. Evaluating the client's understanding of the disorder is an educational intervention that occurs after a diagnosis has been established. While patient education is vital for treatment adherence, it does not assist the clinical team in the initial phase of identifying the root cause of the client's physical symptoms.
B. It is highly appropriate to screen a survivor of sexual assault for Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD), but this is not the first step in diagnosing a specific pain disorder. PTSD and pain disorders are often comorbid, but the presence of one does not automatically confirm the nature or origin of the physical pain reported.
C. Journaling is a therapeutic technique used in the treatment and recovery phase to process trauma. However, as a diagnostic tool, it is subjective and does not provide the objective clinical data needed to confirm a diagnosis. Emotional processing should follow the medical stabilization and diagnostic clarity of the physical symptoms.
D. Ruling out a physical cause is the mandatory first step in confirming any psychosomatic or pain-related psychiatric diagnosis. The nurse and physician must ensure the pain is not caused by infections, hormonal imbalances, endometriosis, or physical trauma from the original assault that may require surgical or medical intervention. Once organic pathology is excluded, the team can confidently pursue a psychological diagnosis and treatment plan.
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