A client with a long history of constipation is prescribed magnesium sulfate. What aspect of the client's current health status should the nurse address before administering the medication?
The client's age and mobility deficits.
Most of the client's meals are brought in by family members.
The client's preferred beverage is diet soda, and the client is slightly obese.
The client has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The client's age and mobility deficits: Older adults with limited mobility are at increased risk for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration when given osmotic laxatives like magnesium sulfate. Impaired mobility also slows bowel motility, increasing the risk of complications such as bowel impaction or overcorrection leading to diarrhea.
B. Most of the client's meals are brought in by family members: While dietary patterns can influence bowel habits, knowing where meals come from is less relevant to the safety of magnesium sulfate administration.
C. The client's preferred beverage is diet soda, and the client is slightly obese: These lifestyle details may be important for long-term constipation management but are not immediately relevant to the safe use of magnesium sulfate.
D. The client has type 2 diabetes and takes metformin: Although diabetes can contribute to gastrointestinal issues, magnesium sulfate does not interact with metformin. The combination does not pose a significant risk that would outweigh concerns related to age and reduced mobility.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Nausea is resolved: Loperamide is not used to treat nausea; its mechanism targets intestinal motility to reduce diarrhea. Improvement in nausea would more likely be attributed to antiemetics such as ondansetron or metoclopramide, not loperamide.
B. Rectal bleeding is reduced: Loperamide does not directly treat rectal bleeding. If bleeding is present, further evaluation is needed to rule out serious conditions like inflammatory bowel disease or colorectal pathology. It is not a therapeutic target for this medication.
C. Diarrhea is resolved: Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent that works by slowing peristalsis and increasing absorption of fluids in the intestines. The resolution of diarrhea, such as fewer loose stools and more formed bowel movements, indicates the drug has been effective.
D. Temperature returns to normal: While fever may accompany infections that cause diarrhea, a return to normal temperature is not a direct effect of loperamide. Antipyretics or treating the underlying infection are more closely associated with temperature regulation.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. chronic diabetic gastroparesis: Metoclopramide is commonly prescribed for gastroparesis, especially in diabetic clients. It enhances gastric emptying by increasing motility and decreasing nausea, making it particularly effective for treating delayed gastric emptying due to autonomic neuropathy.
B. impaction: Fecal impaction typically requires enemas or manual disimpaction rather than prokinetic agents. Metoclopramide acts on the upper gastrointestinal tract and has limited usefulness for resolving impaction in the colon.
C. encopresis: Encopresis, the repeated passing of stool in inappropriate places (often due to chronic constipation in children), is not treated with metoclopramide. Management usually involves stool softeners, behavior training, and addressing constipation.
D. clients requiring diagnostic procedures: Although some GI procedures may involve medications to enhance motility or reduce nausea, metoclopramide is not routinely administered for diagnostic preparation. Bowel cleansing agents or sedatives are more commonly used.
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