A client with Alzheimer's disease (AD) is receiving trazodone, a recently prescribed atypical antidepressant. The caregiver tells the home health nurse that the client's mood and sleep patterns are improved, but there is no change in cognitive ability. How should the nurse respond to this information?
Confirm that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved.
Explain that it may take several weeks for the medication to be effective.
Evaluate when and how the medication is being administered to the client.
Notify the healthcare provider that a change in dosage may be needed.
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Confirm that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved: Trazodone is prescribed to improve mood and aid sleep, not to enhance cognitive function. Since the caregiver reports improvement in those areas, the medication is achieving its intended therapeutic outcomes.
B. Explain that it may take several weeks for the medication to be effective: While some antidepressants require time to reach full effectiveness, the caregiver already reports improved mood and sleep. There is no indication of delayed onset.
C. Evaluate when and how the medication is being administered to the client: No signs of improper administration or ineffective dosing are indicated. The caregiver's feedback suggests the medication is being given correctly and is having a beneficial effect.
D. Notify the healthcare provider that a change in dosage may be needed: Cognitive decline in Alzheimer's disease is progressive and not expected to improve with trazodone, so no dosage change is warranted based on this feedback.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Provide support on the unaffected side: Supporting from the unaffected side gives less control if the weak side gives out. Assistance should be on the affected side to better prevent falls and provide stabilization.
B. Hook an arm under the client's left arm: This is unsafe and risks injury to both the client and nurse. It provides poor leverage, may dislocate the shoulder, and does not allow controlled support during ambulation.
C. Use a gait belt standing on affected side: This is the safest technique. Standing on the affected side offers direct support and balance while the gait belt allows secure, ergonomic assistance during movement.
D. Hold the gait belt with palms facing down: Gait belts should be held with palms facing up, which provides a more secure grip and better control if the client loses balance during ambulation.
Correct Answer is ["21"]
Explanation
Calculation:
- Convert the total volume from liters (L) to milliliters (mL).
Total volume = 1 L × 1000 mL/L
= 1000 mL.
- Convert the infusion time from hours to minutes.
Infusion time = 12 hours × 60 min/hour
= 720 minutes.
Drop factor of the IV administration set = 15 gtt/mL.
- Calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min).
Flow rate (gtt/min) = (Total volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtt/mL)) / Infusion time (min)
= (1000 mL × 15 gtt/mL) / 720 min
= 15000 / 720 gtt/min
= 20.833... gtt/min.
- Round the answer to the nearest whole number.
= 21 gtt/min.
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