A client with chronic kidney disease develops hypocalcemia.
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with this condition?
Hypokalemia.
Hypernatremia.
Hyperphosphatemia.
Hyponatremia.
The Correct Answer is C
Managing chronic kidney disease requires understanding the reciprocal relationship between calcium and phosphorus. Knowledge of renal osteodystrophy, vitamin D activation, and the role of the parathyroid hormone in mineral homeostasis is essential to identify the associated electrolyte shift.
Choice A rationale
Hypokalemia is not the primary association with hypocalcemia in kidney failure. Chronic kidney disease usually results in hyperkalemia, where potassium exceeds 5.0 mEq/L, because the failing kidneys cannot effectively excrete excess potassium ions into the urine.
Choice B rationale
Hypernatremia is an elevation of sodium above 145 mEq/L and is not directly linked to the calcium-phosphorus axis. While fluid balance is impaired in renal failure, sodium levels vary based on fluid volume status rather than hypocalcemia.
Choice C rationale
In kidney failure, phosphorus excretion decreases, leading to hyperphosphatemia. High serum phosphorus (above 4.5 mg/dL) binds with calcium, causing hypocalcemia (below 8.5 mg/dL). Additionally, decreased vitamin D activation in the kidneys further reduces calcium absorption from the gut.
Choice D rationale
Hyponatremia, or sodium below 135 mEq/L, often results from fluid overload in renal patients but is not the metabolic driver of low calcium. The hallmark mineral imbalance involves the inverse relationship specifically between serum phosphate and ionized calcium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","E","F","H"]
Explanation
Following major orthopedic surgery, a client presenting with sudden shortness of breath and tachycardia is highly suspicious for a pulmonary embolism. Knowledge of venous thromboembolism complications, diagnostic imaging protocols, and immediate stabilization techniques is necessary to prevent cardiovascular collapse and ensure respiratory support.
Choice A rationale: Computed tomography pulmonary angiography is the gold standard for diagnosing a pulmonary embolism. It allows for direct visualization of the pulmonary vasculature to identify arterial obstructions, which is essential for confirming the suspected condition in a post-operative patient.
Choice B rationale: A flat supine position can worsen respiratory distress by increasing the work of breathing and reducing lung expansion. Clients experiencing shortness of breath should be placed in a high-Fowler position to optimize ventilation and improve oxygenation.
Choice C rationale: Laboratory testing, including a complete blood count and coagulation studies, provides a baseline for the client's hematological status. These values are critical for planning the safe administration of therapeutic anticoagulation and monitoring for potential bleeding risks.
Choice D rationale: Obtaining venous access is a priority intervention to allow for the rapid administration of emergency medications or intravenous fluids. In the event of hemodynamic instability or the need for IV anticoagulants, established access is life-saving.
Choice E rationale: Continuous cardiac monitoring is necessary to track the client's heart rate and rhythm. Pulmonary embolism can cause right heart strain and dysrhythmias; monitoring allows the nurse to detect early signs of cardiac decompensation or worsening tachycardia.
Choice F rationale: Continuous oxygen saturation monitoring provides real-time data on the client’s respiratory status. Since pulmonary embolism impairs gas exchange, tracking saturation levels is vital to ensure that oxygen therapy is maintaining adequate systemic tissue perfusion.
Choice G rationale: Nurses cannot independently increase medication dosages, as this constitutes prescribing. Any changes to anticoagulant therapy, such as apixaban, must be ordered by a provider based on weight-based protocols and the severity of the thrombotic event.
Choice H rationale: Supplemental oxygen should be applied immediately to address the client's shortness of breath and potential hypoxemia. Increasing the concentration of inspired oxygen helps compensate for the ventilation-perfusion mismatch caused by the obstruction in the pulmonary arteries.
Correct Answer is ["167"]
Explanation
Step 1 is 2 L × 1,000 mL = 2,000 mL.
Step 2 is 2,000 mL ÷ 12 hours = 166.666 mL/hr.
Step 3 is round 166.666 to 167 mL/hr. Final calculated answer is 167.
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