A client with pancreatitis develops hypocalcemia.
Which ECG finding should the nurse anticipate?
Peaked T-waves.
Shortened QT interval.
Widened QRS complex.
Prolonged QT interval.
The Correct Answer is D
Assessing electrolyte imbalances in pancreatitis requires understanding how calcium sequestration affects cardiac conduction. Knowledge of cardiac electrophysiology is applied to identify how low serum calcium, typically below 8.5 mg/dL, alters the duration of ventricular depolarization and repolarization.
Choice A rationale
Peaked T-waves are classically associated with hyperkalemia, not hypocalcemia. Hyperkalemia involves potassium levels > 5.0 mEq/L. This ECG change reflects rapid repolarization and is not an anticipated finding for a client experiencing a deficit in calcium.
Choice B rationale
A shortened QT interval is a characteristic finding in hypercalcemia, where serum calcium levels exceed 10.5 mg/dL. Excess calcium accelerates the plateau phase of the action potential, leading to faster ventricular repolarization and a shortened interval.
Choice C rationale
A widened QRS complex is usually seen in hyperkalemia or bundle branch blocks. While severe electrolyte shifts can affect the QRS, it is not the primary or most common ECG manifestation of isolated low calcium.
Choice D rationale
Hypocalcemia slows the entry of calcium into cardiac cells during the plateau phase. This delay lengthens the ST segment and the QT interval. A prolonged QT interval increases the risk for lethal ventricular arrhythmias like Torsades.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
The scenario requires evaluating surgical and medical history to identify specific factors that increase the probability of clot formation. Knowledge of Virchow's triad, involving venous stasis, endothelial injury, and hypercoagulability, is applied to differentiate between general health issues and specific VTE risks.
Choice A rationale
A history of previous deep vein thrombosis is one of the strongest predictors for future occurrences. Past events indicate a predisposition to hypercoagulability or existing vascular damage, which significantly increases the risk during periods of surgical immobilization.
Choice B rationale
While hypertension is a significant cardiovascular risk factor for stroke or myocardial infarction, it is not traditionally categorized as a direct independent trigger for venous thromboembolism. It affects the high-pressure arterial system rather than the venous system.
Choice C rationale
Remote surgical history like a cholecystectomy does not present an active risk for a current procedure. Only the immediate perioperative period of the current surgery or a very recent surgery within thirty days contributes to VTE risk.
Choice D rationale
Major orthopedic surgeries, specifically total hip arthroplasties, carry an extremely high risk for VTE due to extensive local tissue trauma and prolonged venous stasis. These procedures require aggressive prophylaxis because they often cause direct venous endothelial injury.
Choice E rationale
A Body Mass Index of 30.1 indicates obesity, which increases intra-abdominal pressure and slows venous return from the lower extremities. This venous stasis, combined with chronic systemic inflammation associated with adipose tissue, raises the risk of clot formation.
Choice F rationale
High cholesterol, or hyperlipidemia, is a primary driver for atherosclerosis within the arterial system. While it impacts overall vascular health, it is not a primary or direct risk factor for developing venous thromboembolism in the perioperative setting.
Choice G rationale
Smoking causes significant endothelial dysfunction and increases blood viscosity, even if the client quit two years ago. The long-term damage to the vascular lining and chronic changes in coagulation factors contribute to an elevated risk profile.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D"]
Explanation
Sepsis requires a focused assessment of systemic perfusion and the inflammatory response. Knowledge of the Sequential Organ Failure Assessment criteria is necessary. The nurse must prioritize assessments that reflect respiratory function, renal perfusion, and peripheral microvascular status to detect early deterioration.
Choice A rationale
Sepsis often leads to increased capillary permeability and acute lung injury. Assessing breath sounds allows the nurse to detect adventitious sounds like crackles, which may indicate the development of pulmonary edema or progressing respiratory distress or infection.
Choice B rationale
Urine output is a primary indicator of organ perfusion. In sepsis, decreased output less than 0.5 mL per kg per hr suggests inadequate renal blood flow or acute kidney injury resulting from systemic hypotension and inflammatory damage.
Choice C rationale
While glucose levels can fluctuate during the stress response of sepsis, it is not a primary component of a focused sepsis assessment compared to hemodynamic markers. Hyperglycemia is common but does not specifically define the septic state.
Choice D rationale
Skin temperature and capillary refill provide information about peripheral perfusion. In early sepsis, skin may be warm due to vasodilation, while late sepsis often presents with cool, clammy skin as the body shunts blood to organs.
Choice E rationale
The date of the last bowel movement is a part of a general gastrointestinal assessment but is not a priority in a focused sepsis evaluation. It does not provide immediate data regarding systemic inflammatory response or perfusion..
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