A client with schizophrenia is experiencing restlessness from antipsychotic medications. Which intervention should the nurse implement to manage this stress-induced side effect?
Encourage progressive muscle relaxation techniques.
Advocate for reduced medication dosage.
Refer the client for group therapy.
Provide a meditation class focused on mindfulness.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Progressive muscle relaxation involves the tensing and releasing of various muscle groups. While this can be helpful for generalized anxiety, it is often ineffective for medication-induced restlessness, such as akathisia. The physical discomfort from antipsychotic side effects is neurochemical in nature and typically requires pharmacological adjustment rather than behavioral relaxation.
Choice B reason: Akathisia is a common extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications, characterized by an intense internal sense of restlessness and a compelling need to move. The most direct and effective medical intervention is to advocate for a reduction in the medication dosage or a change in the drug itself to alleviate the dopamine-related neurological stimulus causing the distress.
Choice C reason: Group therapy is generally used to improve social skills, provide emotional support, or process shared experiences. It does not address the underlying physiological or neurological causes of medication-induced restlessness. Expecting a client with severe physical restlessness to sit through a group session may actually increase their agitation and discomfort.
Choice D reason: Mindfulness meditation focuses on present-moment awareness and non-judgmental acceptance of sensations. While beneficial for stress, a client experiencing acute akathisia often finds it physically impossible to sit still for meditation. The priority must be resolving the physiological adverse reaction through medication management before behavioral or mindfulness-based interventions can be successfully utilized.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: There is no clinical evidence to suggest that serious mental illnesses, such as schizophrenia or bipolar 1 disorder, naturally become easier to manage solely due to the aging process. In fact, age-related physiological changes can sometimes complicate medication metabolism and the management of comorbid conditions.
Choice B reason: While managing manifestations (symptoms) is a part of the care plan, the contemporary focus of SMI treatment is on "recovery," which involves helping the client achieve a meaningful life and functional goals despite their illness, rather than just symptom management or the medical model of "fixing" manifestations.
Choice C reason: It is medically inaccurate to tell a family that relapse is unlikely. Serious mental illnesses are typically chronic and characterized by a cyclical nature. Relapse is common even with adherence to treatment, and part of family education involves recognizing early warning signs of a pending relapse.
Choice D reason: SMI is often characterized by an episodic course where the client experiences exacerbations followed by periods of remission. Understanding that symptoms may wax and wane helps the client and family maintain hope during difficult times while remaining vigilant for the return of active disease manifestations.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
To calculate the volume of medication to be administered, the nurse should use the standard dosage formula: (Desired Dose / Have Dose) x Volume = Amount to Administer. In this clinical scenario, the prescribed amount (Desired) is 7.5 mg, and the concentration on hand (Have) is 5 mg per 1 mL.
Calculation:
Formula: (7.5 mg / 5 mg) x 1 mL = X
Step 1: 7.5 divided by 5 equals 1.5.
Step 2: 1.5 multiplied by 1 mL equals 1.5 mL.
The nurse must accurately draw up 1.5 mL of the diazepam solution into the syringe to provide the exact 7.5 mg dose ordered by the physician.
Choice A reason: This is the mathematically correct volume derived from dividing the prescribed 7.5 mg by the concentration of 5 mg/mL. Accurate calculation is vital in intravenous administration to ensure therapeutic efficacy while avoiding the respiratory depression associated with benzodiazepine toxicity.
Choice B reason: A volume of 0.5 mL would only provide 2.5 mg of diazepam (0.5 mL x 5 mg/mL). This is an under-dose of the prescribed 7.5 mg, which would likely fail to produce the necessary pharmacological effect for the patient's condition.
Choice C reason: A volume of 1.0 mL would provide exactly 5 mg of diazepam. This does not meet the provider's order of 7.5 mg, resulting in a sub-therapeutic dose that could compromise the management of acute anxiety or seizure activity.
Choice D reason: A volume of 2.5 mL would provide 12.5 mg of diazepam (2.5 mL x 5 mg/mL). This constitutes a significant medication error and overdose, increasing the risk of severe central nervous system depression, hypotension, and potential respiratory arrest.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.