A client with third-degree heart block is admitted to the telemetry unit. The nurse observes wide QRS complexes, with a heart rate of 35 beats/min on the monitor.
What physical assessment finding would be important to note for this client?
Confusion or syncope.
Pulmonary rales.
Acute hypertension.
Presence of a gallop rhythm.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
In third-degree heart block, the atria and ventricles beat independently, and a slow ventricular escape rate of 35 beats/min significantly reduces cardiac output. This lack of perfusion to the brain often manifests as confusion, dizziness, or syncope, known as Stokes-Adams attacks. Monitoring for neurological changes is critical because it indicates the severity of the hemodynamic compromise and the immediate need for a temporary or permanent pacemaker to restore adequate systemic blood flow.
Choice B rationale
Pulmonary rales or crackles indicate left-sided heart failure and fluid backup into the alveolar spaces. While chronic heart block can eventually lead to heart failure, the most immediate and life-threatening assessment finding for a rate of 35 beats/min is related to cerebral perfusion. Although the nurse should listen to lung sounds, the identification of syncope or confusion takes priority as an acute indicator of the patient's inability to maintain a minimally functional cardiac output for consciousness.
Choice C rationale
Acute hypertension is not a typical finding in a patient with a heart rate of 35 beats/min and third-degree heart block. In fact, most patients with such a low heart rate and wide QRS complexes experience hypotension due to the significant drop in the volume of blood pumped per minute. Assessing for high blood pressure would be less relevant than assessing for low blood pressure and the associated symptoms of shock or poor peripheral organ perfusion.
Choice D rationale
A gallop rhythm, such as an S3 or S4 heart sound, is often associated with ventricular filling issues or heart failure. While it may be present in a patient with underlying cardiac disease, it is not the most critical assessment finding for an acute bradycardic event of 35 beats/min. Neurological status is a more sensitive and immediate indicator of whether the slow rate is currently failing to meet the body's basic metabolic and oxygenation demands.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Requesting that family members prepare the body is inappropriate and culturally insensitive in most hospital settings. While some cultures may wish to participate in the washing or dressing of the deceased, the nurse should never assume this or place the burden of postmortem care entirely on grieving relatives. The nurse is responsible for the dignified handling of the body, and the priority is first addressing the emotional needs of the family present.
Choice B rationale
Ensuring the death certificate is completed is a necessary legal and administrative step in postmortem care, but it is not the immediate priority for the nurse at the bedside. The primary focus immediately following the death should be on the psychosocial and emotional support of the family members who are currently experiencing the loss. Administrative tasks can be managed once the family has been initially supported and offered time with their loved one.
Choice C rationale
Calling for emergency assistance to begin resuscitation is inappropriate because the patient is described as terminally ill and has already died. If the patient has a Do Not Resuscitate order or is in the end stages of a terminal disease, performing CPR would be contrary to their wishes and ethically unsound. The nurse's role in this moment is to provide a peaceful environment and support the survivors, rather than initiating futile medical interventions.
Choice D rationale
The priority intervention after a death is to provide compassionate, family-centered care. Offering the family time alone with the deceased allows them to begin the grieving process and say their final goodbyes in a private, respectful environment. This supports the emotional well-being of the survivors and honors the dignity of the patient. Once the family has had this opportunity, the nurse can then proceed with the technical aspects of postmortem body care.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Sinus tachycardia is characterized by a normal cardiac conduction pathway originating in the sinoatrial node but at a rate exceeding 100 beats per minute. While stress or pain can cause tachycardia, premature ventricular contractions are ectopic beats originating from the ventricles, bypassing the normal atrial conduction system. There is no direct electrophysiological mechanism where ventricular ectopy converts the heart back into a rapid but otherwise normal sinus rhythm originating from the atria.
Choice B rationale
Rapid atrial flutter is a supraventricular tachycardia caused by a macro-reentrant circuit within the atria, typically producing a characteristic sawtooth pattern on an EKG. Premature ventricular contractions occur below the Bundle of His and do not typically trigger atrial re-entrant circuits. While both involve irritability of the cardiac tissue, the pathology of atrial flutter is localized to the upper chambers, whereas frequent ventricular ectopy primarily predisposes the heart to more lethal ventricular-based arrhythmias.
Choice C rationale
Atrioventricular junctional rhythm occurs when the AV node takes over as the primary pacemaker of the heart, usually at a rate of 40 to 60 beats per minute. This typically happens if the sinoatrial node fails or is suppressed. Frequent premature ventricular contractions signify increased ventricular excitability rather than a failure of the upper pacemakers. Therefore, the progression of frequent ventricular ectopy is usually toward faster, more chaotic ventricular rhythms rather than a slower junctional escape rhythm.
Choice D rationale
Ventricular tachycardia is defined as three or more consecutive premature ventricular contractions at a rate greater than 100 beats per minute. Frequent ventricular ectopy indicates significant myocardial irritability. When a premature contraction falls during the vulnerable period of the T-wave, known as the R-on-T phenomenon, it can trigger a sustained run of ventricular tachycardia. This rhythm is life-threatening because it severely reduces cardiac output due to decreased diastolic filling time and loss of atrial kick.
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