A patient presented to the ER with exposure to Tabun, a nerve agent.
Once decontaminated, the most likely treatment is:
Sodium thiosulfate IV.
Sodium nitrate pearls crushed into the ventilator reservoir.
Intubation with a plastic airway.
Atropine IV.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Sodium thiosulfate is primarily utilized in the management of cyanide poisoning, not nerve agent exposure. It works by acting as a sulfur donor for the enzyme rhodanese, which converts toxic cyanide into less toxic thiocyanate for renal excretion. Tabun is an organophosphate nerve agent that inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to a cholinergic crisis. Therefore, sodium thiosulfate would not address the underlying mechanism of neuromuscular blockade or the overstimulation of muscarinic receptors caused by Tabun.
Choice B rationale
Sodium nitrate is used to treat cyanide toxicity by inducing methemoglobinemia, which has a high affinity for cyanide, pulling it away from cytochrome oxidase. This treatment is irrelevant for nerve agents like Tabun. Nerve agents require medications that counteract excess acetylcholine at the receptor level or reactivate the inhibited enzyme. Using nitrates in this context would not alleviate the respiratory distress, miosis, or bradycardia associated with the specific toxidrome produced by organophosphate nerve agent exposure.
Choice C rationale
While maintaining an airway is a priority in any emergency, the use of a plastic airway or intubation alone does not treat the physiological effects of Tabun. Tabun causes a massive accumulation of acetylcholine, leading to bronchorrhea and bronchospasm, often referred to as "killer B's.”. Without pharmacological intervention to dry secretions and relax the airway, mechanical ventilation may be ineffective due to extremely high airway resistance and excessive fluid within the pulmonary tree.
Choice D rationale
Atropine is the definitive treatment for the muscarinic effects of nerve agent poisoning. It is a competitive antagonist at postganglionic muscarinic receptor sites, effectively blocking the excess acetylcholine resulting from the inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by Tabun. It helps reverse life-threatening symptoms such as severe bradycardia, excessive bronchial secretions, and bronchospasm. Standard dosing in nerve agent exposure involves rapid administration until secretions dry up and heart rate increases, typically alongside an oxime to reactivate the enzyme.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale
In NSTEMI, there is often a partially occluded coronary artery or a ruptured plaque that is highly thrombogenic. Heparin acts as an anticoagulant by accelerating the activity of antithrombin III, which inactivates thrombin and factor Xa. This prevents the formation of new fibrin clots and stops existing clots from enlarging. By inhibiting the clotting cascade, heparin reduces the risk of the NSTEMI progressing to a full occlusion or a ST-segment elevation myocardial infarction.
Choice A rationale
Heparin does not enhance platelet aggregation; in fact, its primary role is to inhibit the secondary phase of the clotting process. Platelet aggregation is typically managed with antiplatelet agents like aspirin or clopidogrel. While platelets are involved in the initial formation of a white thrombus, heparin's mechanism is focused on the coagulation factors in the blood. Using heparin to enhance aggregation would be counterproductive and scientifically inaccurate regarding its known pharmacological profile and clinical use.
Choice C rationale
Heparin does not have the ability to decrease the size of an existing atherosclerotic plaque or change its adherence to the vessel wall. Plaque size is generally managed through long-term lifestyle changes and statin therapy, which stabilizes the plaque. Heparin's role is strictly focused on the blood's ability to form a thrombus on top of that plaque. It is a common misconception that anticoagulants "clean out" the arteries; their role is purely preventative regarding fibrin formation.
Choice D rationale
Heparin is not a fibrinolytic or "clot buster" medication. It cannot dissolve a clot that has already formed; only thrombolytic agents like alteplase can break down an existing fibrin mesh. Heparin's function is to maintain the patency of the vessel by preventing the further growth of the thrombus while the body's own natural fibrinolytic system slowly works to break it down. Expecting heparin to dissolve a blocking clot is a misunderstanding of its pharmacological classification. .
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A patient with type 1 diabetes experiencing vomiting and a heart rate of 140 is highly unstable and likely entering diabetic ketoacidosis. Tachycardia above 100 beats per minute combined with metabolic distress requires advanced assessment and rapid intravenous interventions. This complexity and instability fall under the scope of the registered nurse, as the patient requires frequent monitoring and adjustment of complex medication protocols that exceed the standard role of the LPN.
Choice B rationale
A blood pressure of 88/58 mm Hg in a patient with active gastrointestinal bleeding indicates hemodynamic instability and possible hypovolemic shock. Normal systolic blood pressure should be above 90 mm Hg. This patient requires aggressive fluid resuscitation, blood products, and constant reassessment of their circulatory status. Because the patient is unstable and the risk of rapid deterioration is high, they must be managed by a registered nurse rather than an LPN.
Choice C rationale
A respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute is significantly higher than the normal range of 12 to 20. When combined with decreased breath sounds in a pneumonia patient, it suggests potential respiratory failure or a large pleural effusion. This patient is experiencing acute respiratory distress and requires complex assessment and potential escalation of care. The instability of the respiratory status makes this an inappropriate assignment for an LPN, requiring the RN's expertise.
Choice D rationale
This patient is hemodynamically stable with a normal oxygen saturation of 95 percent, which is within the typical target range of 94 to 99 percent for non-COPD patients. Receiving a low dose of 1 L/min of oxygen indicates a chronic or resolving condition that is currently controlled. This patient is the most stable of the four options and has predictable outcomes, making it a safe and appropriate assignment for an experienced LPN.
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