A drug has a half-life of 2 hours.
If at 0600, the drug level is measured as 200 mg/L, what will the drug level be at 1200?
The Correct Answer is ["25"]
Step 1 is calculate the number of half-lives that have elapsed: (1200 - 0600) = 6 hours.
Step 2 is 6 hours ÷ 2 hours/half-life = 3 half-lives.
Step 3 is calculate the decay: 200 mg/L ÷ 2 = 100 mg/L after 2 hours.
Step 4 is 100 mg/L ÷ 2 = 50 mg/L after 4 hours.
Step 5 is 50 mg/L ÷ 2 = 25 mg/L after 6 hours. Final calculated answer is 25 mg/L.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
This question addresses the principles of safe medication administration scheduling. It requires understanding that the pharmacokinetics, drug-food interactions, and therapeutic goals of specific medications dictate their timing, which is the most critical factor in ensuring optimal efficacy and safety for the hospitalized patient.
Choice A rationale
The specific pharmacokinetic characteristics, such as half-life, peak effect, and absorption requirements, must dictate administration schedules. These factors are the most important considerations to ensure that the medication is working at its maximum potential while maintaining a safe therapeutic drug level.
Choice B rationale
Institutional policies provide a framework for standardizing medication rounds, but they are subordinate to the clinical needs of the patient and the specific pharmacological requirements of the drugs being administered. Clinical safety and drug efficacy always take precedence over general routine timing.
Choice C rationale
While medication availability is a logistical consideration for the pharmacy, it should not dictate the clinical administration schedule. Patients must receive their medications at the correct, clinically indicated times to ensure therapeutic effectiveness and prevent variations that could lead to sub-therapeutic drug levels.
Choice D rationale
While maintaining a home medication schedule can improve patient adherence after discharge, the hospital schedule often needs to be adjusted based on the patient's acute clinical status, current diagnostic tests, and the unique pharmacological needs of the medications being administered during their stay.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This question addresses diabetes management during illness. It requires understanding the physiological stress response, which increases counter-regulatory hormones that cause hyperglycemia, and applying the "sick day rules" to adjust insulin and maintain hydration while preventing metabolic complications like ketoacidosis in Type 1 patients.
Choice A rationale
Stopping insulin during illness in a Type 1 diabetic is dangerous and leads to diabetic ketoacidosis. The body's metabolic demand for insulin often increases during stress and illness; therefore, insulin must always be continued to prevent critical, life-threatening metabolic derangement.
Choice B rationale
Oral hypoglycemic agents are ineffective for Type 1 diabetes because these patients do not have sufficient endogenous insulin production. Relying on oral agents during illness would lead to severe, uncontrolled hyperglycemia, which is the primary cause of diabetic ketoacidosis in this population.
Choice C rationale
During illness, Type 1 diabetics must continue insulin, monitor blood glucose frequently, and maintain hydration. If unable to eat solids, replacing carbohydrates with liquid equivalents ensures the insulin has fuel to manage, preventing hypoglycemia while maintaining adequate hydration and glycemic control.
Choice D rationale
While continuing insulin and monitoring glucose are correct, restricting fluids to sugar-free versions when the patient is not eating is insufficient. If the patient cannot consume carbohydrates, they need caloric intake to match their insulin and prevent dangerous hypoglycemia from occurring during illness.
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