A female client returns to the clinic after being treated for chlamydia with azithromycin IM and reports that she still has symptoms. The healthcare provider obtains a swab of the discharge from the cervix for testing for chlamydia. The client reports maintaining a monogamous relationship when the laboratory results are positive for the sexually transmitted infection. Which information should the nurse obtain to evaluate the ineffective results of treatment?
Confer with the healthcare provider about a different course of antibiotics.
Determine if the client's sexual partner received treatment for chlamydia.
Inquire further about all sexual encounters and any other sexual activity.
Ask the client if the complete course of antibiotics was completed.
The Correct Answer is B
A. Confer with the healthcare provider about a different course of antibiotics: While this may be necessary if treatment failure is confirmed, the first step is to evaluate whether the sexual partner was treated, as reinfection is common if the partner was not also treated.
B. Determine if the client's sexual partner received treatment for chlamydia: It is critical to ensure that the sexual partner has been treated for chlamydia as well. If the partner has not been treated, the client could have been reinfected, leading to ongoing symptoms despite completing the antibiotic regimen.
C. Inquire further about all sexual encounters and any other sexual activity: While understanding sexual history is important, the client explicitly stated she is maintaining a "monogamous relationship." the primary focus should be on ensuring that the partner was treated.
D. Ask the client if the complete course of antibiotics was completed: The client was treated with "azithromycin IM." Azithromycin for chlamydia is typically a single dose. The reinfection is more likely from an untreated partner, causing of the persistent symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A decrease in urine production: A decrease in urine output may indicate renal impairment or dehydration, which can be serious during pregnancy. It could also suggest preeclampsia or other complications that require immediate attention and monitoring.
B. 2% decrease in hematocrit: A slight decrease in hematocrit (within the normal range for pregnancy) is often expected due to the increase in plasma volume during pregnancy. While anemia should be monitored, a 2% decrease is typically not of immediate concern.
C. Sensitive, bleeding gums: Sensitive and bleeding gums can be a common pregnancy-related condition due to hormonal changes. While it is bothersome, it is not usually a serious concern and typically resolves after pregnancy.
D. Glycosuria at one prenatal exam: Glycosuria can occur in pregnancy but is not necessarily a sign of gestational diabetes, especially if it is found only in one prenatal exam. Further testing would be needed to evaluate for gestational diabetes, but it is not an immediate cause for concern.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Soft and not palpable: Immediately after delivery, the fundus should be firm and palpable. A soft, non-palpable fundus may indicate uterine atony, which is a serious condition that could lead to hemorrhage and requires immediate intervention.
B. Above the umbilicus: Immediately after delivery, the fundus is typically at or just below the umbilicus. If it is above the umbilicus, it could indicate uterine distension, a retained placenta, or excessive bleeding that needs to be addressed.
C. At or below the umbilicus: The fundus is expected to be firm and palpable at or just below the umbilicus immediately after delivery. This position reflects normal uterine contraction as the uterus begins to return to its pre-pregnancy size.
D. To the left or right of the umbilicus: The fundus should be midline after delivery. A deviation to the left or right may suggest a full bladder or uterine displacement, which can interfere with uterine contraction and increase the risk of bleeding.
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