The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Teach importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Teaching the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol is crucial for treating gonorrhea and preventing its spread to others. It addresses the immediate health concern and helps prevent further transmission.
B. While partners without symptoms may not show signs of infection, they could still be carriers of gonorrhea and should be tested and treated if necessary.
C. While using safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, it may not completely eliminate the risk, especially if a partner has multiple sexual partners.
D. While sexual intercourse is a common mode of transmission for STIs, not all STIs are transmitted exclusively through sexual intercourse.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","F"]
Explanation
A. Client education is also important, focusing on asthma management, the importance of carrying a non-expired inhaler, and avoiding known triggers.
B. Oxygen therapy via nasal cannula should be considered due to the patient's oxygen saturation of 88% on room air, aiming to maintain SpO2 above 94%.
C. Requesting a list of current medications is essential for reviewing potential drug interactions and ensuring comprehensive care.
D. Trendelenburg position is not indicated for this condition and could exacerbate breathing difficulties.
E. While the patient's condition should be closely monitored, the current information does not suggest an immediate need for intubation; however, the healthcare provider should be notified if the patient's condition worsens.
F. Administering medications as ordered is crucial to address the immediate respiratory distress.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Alternating IV and IM analgesic medications may be appropriate for pain management in some situations but is not the best initial intervention for continuous, severe pain in a client with stage IV bone cancer.
B. Administering opioid and non-opioid medication simultaneously is an appropriate intervention for managing severe pain, as it addresses pain from multiple pathways and may provide more effective pain relief.
C. Giving maximum dosage when the pain score reaches 10 is not recommended, as it may lead to overmedication and increased risk of adverse effects. Pain management should be based on the client's reported pain intensity and individualized needs.
D. Educating the client on signs and symptoms of narcotic dependency is important but is not the priority intervention in this situation. Pain management and relief should be the immediate focus for the client's comfort and quality of life.
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