A health care provider considers which antipsychotic medication to prescribe for a patient diagnosed with schizophrenia who has auditory hallucinations and poor social function. The patient is also overweight and hypertensive. Which drug should the nurse advocate?
Aripiprazole (Abilify)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Clozapine (Clozaril)
Ziprasidone (Geodon)
The Correct Answer is A
A. Aripiprazole is an atypical antipsychotic with a lower risk of weight gain, metabolic syndrome, and hypertension compared with olanzapine or clozapine, making it suitable for a patient who is overweight and hypertensive. It effectively treats positive symptoms such as auditory hallucinations and may improve social functioning.
B. Olanzapine is effective for schizophrenia but is associated with significant weight gain, hyperlipidemia, and worsening hypertension, making it less appropriate for this patient.
C. Clozapine is reserved for treatment-resistant schizophrenia due to risks of agranulocytosis, myocarditis, and metabolic side effects; it is not first-line for this patient.
D. Ziprasidone has a lower risk of metabolic side effects than olanzapine or clozapine, but it carries a risk of QT prolongation, which may be concerning in hypertensive patients with potential cardiac risks.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Communication disorders involve difficulties with speech, language, or communication (e.g., stuttering, limited vocabulary). The main problem here is hyperactivity, not speech/language impairment.
B. ADHD is characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. Behaviors such as being in constant motion, excessive talking, lack of sustained interest in activities, and getting up early with energy are hallmark signs of hyperactive/impulsive type ADHD.
C. Intellectual development disorder (formerly mental retardation) involves below-average intellectual functioning and impaired adaptive skills, not constant hyperactivity and excessive talking.
D. Stereotypic movement disorder is repetitive, purposeless motor behavior (e.g., hand flapping, head banging), not generalized hyperactivity and impulsivity.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. There is no indication that cultural bias is affecting interpretation; the focus is on the mismatch between verbal and nonverbal cues.
B. While the patient says they enjoy the interaction, their nonverbal behavior (fidgeting, covering face, looking under chair) suggests discomfort or anxiety, not purely positive feedback.
C. The behaviors described (fidgeting, covering face) do not indicate hallucinations or delusions typical of psychosis.
D. The patient verbally states enjoyment, but their body language suggests discomfort, anxiety, or internal conflict, indicating incongruence between words and actions.
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