A laboring client has been dilated 9-10 cm for 2 hours. The fetal head has remained at zero station for 45 minutes despite adequate pushing efforts by the client. A sterile vaginal exam reveals a position of occiput posterior. Which of the following actions by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Assist the client to knee chest position
Assist the client to a supine position.
Prepare the client for a forceps rotation.
Prepare the client for a cesarean delivery.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Assist the client to knee chest position: The knee-chest or all-fours position utilizes gravity to encourage the fetal head to rotate from an occiput posterior to an occiput anterior position. This shift can resolve the mechanical obstruction and allow the head to descend past zero station. It is a non-invasive first-line intervention.
B. Assist the client to a supine position: Placing a laboring client in the supine position increases the risk of vena cava syndrome and maternal hypotension. Furthermore, it does nothing to assist in the rotation of a posterior fetus. This position would likely hinder progress and decrease uteroplacental perfusion during labor.
C. Prepare the client for a forceps rotation: Instrumental rotation using forceps is a high-risk procedure that requires significant obstetric expertise and specific pelvic conditions. It is typically reserved for cases where maternal positioning and pushing have failed. Less invasive maneuvers like maternal repositioning are attempted first to minimize trauma.
D. Prepare the client for a cesarean delivery: Surgical intervention is indicated if the fetus fails to rotate or descend after exhaustive conservative measures. However, at 9 to 10 centimeters, attempts at maternal positioning to facilitate rotation are appropriate before declaring cephalopelvic disproportion. Surgery is the final option for persistent arrest of descent.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. increase her protein: While a balanced diet is essential for gestational health, increasing protein intake does not address the underlying carbohydrate intolerance suggested by an elevated screening result. This intervention fails to provide the diagnostic clarity required for a definitive metabolic assessment. It is a nutritional adjustment rather than a clinical diagnostic step.
B. schedule a repeat one-hour test: A single elevated 1 hour 50g glucose challenge test provides sufficient screening evidence to warrant more definitive diagnostic testing. Repeating the same screening procedure is not standard protocol and delays the identification of gestational diabetes mellitus. The clinical pathway mandates a more rigorous, multi-hour diagnostic evaluation.
C. return for a fasting three-hour glucose tolerance test: A result of 150 mg/dl exceeds the standard 130 to 140 mg/dl threshold, necessitating a 100g 3 hour diagnostic test. This gold-standard procedure involves fasting and multiple blood draws to confirm or rule out gestational diabetes. It evaluates the body's ability to maintain glucose homeostasis over an extended period.
D. restrict her carbohydrate intake: Implementing dietary restrictions before a formal diagnosis is premature and may mask the results of subsequent diagnostic testing. Patients must maintain a normal carbohydrate load prior to a 3 hour glucose tolerance test to ensure accurate metabolic data. Therapeutic interventions are only initiated once a pathological state is confirmed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. excessive blood loss and fever: Hematomas are characterized by occult bleeding into the pelvic soft tissues rather than overt vaginal hemorrhage. While a large hematoma can eventually lead to a drop in hemoglobin, the blood remains trapped within the tissue space. Fever is a sign of infectious processes like chorioamnionitis.
B. severe perineal pain and pressure: The accumulation of blood within the vaginal or vulvar fascia causes intense, localized pain that is often described as a rectal pressure or a tearing sensation. This pain is typically disproportionate to the visible trauma or the expected recovery from delivery. It is the hallmark clinical sign.
C. uterine atony: This condition refers to the failure of the myometrium to contract effectively after placental delivery, leading to brisk external bleeding from the placental site. Atony is a separate cause of postpartum hemorrhage that involves the uterine fundus rather than the vaginal wall. Hematomas can occur even with a firm, contracted uterus.
D. hypotension: Low blood pressure is a late sign of significant internal or external blood loss and indicates hypovolemic shock. While a massive, expanding hematoma can eventually cause hemodynamic instability, it is not the most common or early diagnostic sign. Pain and pressure precede systemic changes in vital signs.
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