A male patient who has a history of type 2 DM is admitted to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia.
The patient has many Questions regarding his care and asks the nurse why everyone keeps telling him about HbA1C.
What can the nurse inform the patient about the use of HbA1C in diabetes mellitus?
It helps to identify which type of DM the patient has.
It will identify if he has an infection.
It will aid in monitoring patient adherence to treatment regimen for several months previously.
It represents his current fasting blood glucose level.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
The HbA1c test measures the average blood glucose concentration over the past two to three months by assessing the amount of glycated hemoglobin in red blood cells. It does not differentiate between type 1 or type 2 diabetes mellitus, as both conditions can result in elevated blood glucose levels and thus an elevated HbA1c reading. A diagnosis of type 1 versus type 2 diabetes requires a different diagnostic approach.
Choice B rationale
The HbA1c test measures the percentage of hemoglobin with glucose molecules attached. This is an indicator of long-term average blood glucose control and is not a marker for infection. Infections can cause an acute increase in blood glucose levels but do not directly or immediately affect the HbA1c, which reflects a longer-term trend. The normal HbA1c is below 5.7%.
Choice C rationale
Glycated hemoglobin forms when hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to glucose in the bloodstream. Since red blood cells have a lifespan of approximately 120 days, the HbA1c level reflects the average blood glucose concentration over the preceding two to three months. This provides a valuable metric for assessing patient adherence to diet, exercise, and medication regimens over an extended period.
Choice D rationale
The HbA1c value represents the average blood glucose level over a two to three month period, not the patient’s current or fasting blood glucose level. A fasting blood glucose test measures the glucose concentration in the blood at a single point in time, specifically after at least eight hours of not eating. These two tests provide different snapshots of glycemic control.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A seafood platter is not a good choice for a patient taking antithyroid medication. Seafood, particularly saltwater fish and shellfish, is naturally rich in iodine. Consuming a high-iodine diet can counteract the effects of antithyroid medications, such as methimazole or propylthiouracil, by providing more substrate for the thyroid gland to produce thyroid hormones, thereby hindering the medication's effectiveness in suppressing hormone synthesis.
Choice B rationale
Sushi is not an ideal choice. Many sushi rolls contain seafood, which is high in iodine. Additionally, the seaweed (nori) used to wrap sushi is a significant source of iodine. The intake of this high-iodine food can inhibit the therapeutic action of antithyroid drugs, which work by blocking thyroid hormone synthesis, and can worsen the patient's hyperthyroidism.
Choice C rationale
A tofu burger is not the best choice. Tofu and other soy products contain goitrogenic compounds that can interfere with thyroid hormone production and iodine uptake. While this might seem beneficial for hyperthyroidism, the interaction with antithyroid medication is complex and inconsistent. It is generally advised to avoid or limit goitrogenic foods to ensure the medication's intended effect is predictable and not counteracted.
Choice D rationale
Pasta with marinara sauce is the best choice. Pasta and marinara sauce are generally low in iodine and are not known to contain goitrogenic substances. This meal choice will not interfere with the action of antithyroid medications, allowing the drugs to effectively reduce thyroid hormone synthesis and manage the patient's hyperthyroid state. It is considered a safe and appropriate dietary option.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist. While it is an effective antihypertensive, it has been associated with adverse effects on the liver, including hepatitis and elevated liver enzymes. For a patient with a history of cirrhosis, which involves irreversible liver damage and impaired function, a drug with potential hepatotoxicity is a poor choice as it could worsen the underlying liver disease.
Choice B rationale
Prazosin is an alpha-1 adrenergic blocker. It is a suitable choice for this patient. Unlike other antihypertensives, it does not typically cause adverse effects on the liver or pancreas. Its mechanism of action, causing vasodilation by blocking alpha-1 receptors, is not known to exacerbate either pancreatitis or cirrhosis. Therefore, it is a safe and effective option given the patient's co-morbidities.
Choice C rationale
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker. While generally safe, some calcium channel blockers have been associated with potential exacerbation of pancreatic inflammation. Although diltiazem is not the most common culprit, its use should be approached with caution in a patient with a history of pancreatitis due to the potential for pancreatic adverse effects. This makes it a less ideal choice compared to a drug with no known pancreatic side effects.
Choice D rationale
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor. This class of drugs has been associated with a potential risk of hepatotoxicity, including cholestatic jaundice and liver failure, although these are rare. In a patient with pre-existing cirrhosis, the liver's ability to metabolize drugs is already compromised, which increases the risk of drug accumulation and potential toxicity. Therefore, it would be a less favorable choice due to the risk of worsening liver function.
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