A nurse assesses a baby boy at 1 minute after birth and notes a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, some flexion of extremities, a weak cry, a prompt response to stimuli and a pink body but blue extremities. Which Apgar score does the nurse calculate based on the assessment?
4
7
5
6
The Correct Answer is D
A. 4 is incorrect because the infant demonstrates more than minimal findings across several Apgar components, resulting in a higher score than 4.
B. 7 is incorrect because a score of 7 would require stronger respiratory effort (good cry) or a heart rate above 100 beats per minute, which are not present in this assessment.
C. 5 is incorrect because the infant earns more points based on reflex irritability and overall appearance, making the score higher than 5.
D. 6 is correct because the Apgar score is calculated as follows:
- Heart rate of 90 beats per minute = 1 point
- Weak cry = 1 point
- Some flexion of extremities = 1 point
- Prompt response to stimuli = 2 points
- Pink body with blue extremities (acrocyanosis) = 1 point
The total Apgar score at 1 minute is 6.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Retained placental fragments typically cause a soft, boggy uterus and late postpartum hemorrhage rather than a steady trickle of bright red blood with a firm fundus immediately after delivery. This does not match the assessment findings described.
B. Perineal laceration is the most likely cause. When the uterus is firm and midline, it indicates that uterine atony is not the source of bleeding. A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina, despite a firm uterus, suggests bleeding from a laceration of the cervix, vagina, or perineum, which is common after vaginal delivery. This finding matches the clinical scenario.
C. Subinvolution refers to the delayed return of the uterus to pre-pregnancy size, often occurring weeks after delivery. It usually presents with prolonged lochial discharge rather than immediate postpartum bleeding with a firm uterus.
D. A hematoma is a collection of blood within the soft tissues of the perineum or vulva. It usually presents with localized swelling, pain, and sometimes vaginal pressure, rather than a continuous, visible trickle of bright red blood. The absence of a firm, localized swelling makes this less likely in this scenario.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A localized area of breast tenderness is more commonly associated with mastitis or breast engorgement. While these are postpartum complications, they are not indicative of uterine infection or endometritis and do not typically require evaluation for uterine infection.
B. Moderate, dark red, foul-smelling lochia is a hallmark sign of endometritis, an infection of the uterine lining (usually occurring within the first 2–10 days postpartum). This symptom indicates the presence of bacterial infection, often accompanied by fever, uterine tenderness, and malaise. Foul-smelling lochia occurs due to bacterial proliferation and breakdown of blood and tissue in the uterus, making further evaluation and prompt treatment necessary to prevent sepsis.
C. Hematuria (blood in the urine) suggests a urinary tract issue such as infection, trauma, or catheter-related irritation. It does not indicate endometritis, as the infection is localized to the uterine lining, not the urinary tract.
D. Cramping with breastfeeding, also known as afterpains, is a normal postpartum occurrence due to oxytocin-induced uterine contractions. While it can cause discomfort, it is expected and does not signal infection.
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