A nurse is admitting a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation, has placenta previa, and has moderate vaginal bleeding.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take? (Select all that apply.)
Start an IV.
Monitor the fetal heart rate.
Turn the client on their side.
Monitor the client's vital signs.
Offer high-protein food choices with each meal.
Correct Answer : A,B,C,D
Choice A rationale
Starting an intravenous access line is a critical intervention for a client with placenta previa experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding. Hemorrhage is a significant risk when the placenta covers the internal cervical os, as the lower uterine segment softens and thins during the third trimester. Establishing IV access allows for the rapid administration of fluids or blood products to maintain hemodynamic stability and prevent hypovolemic shock if bleeding suddenly increases.
Choice B rationale
Continuous fetal heart rate monitoring is essential because placental bleeding can lead to decreased uteroplacental perfusion and subsequent fetal distress. Placenta previa involves the premature separation of a portion of the placenta or tearing of vessels at the cervical opening. Monitoring the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges from 110 to 160 beats per minute, allows the nursing team to detect signs of fetal hypoxia or bradycardia early and intervene promptly.
Choice C rationale
Placing the client in a side-lying or lateral position is a vital nursing action to optimize placental perfusion. This position prevents the heavy gravid uterus from compressing the inferior vena cava and descending aorta, which can occur when the client is supine. By ensuring adequate venous return to the heart, the nurse helps maintain maternal cardiac output and maximizes the delivery of oxygenated blood to the fetus through the umbilical cord.
Choice D rationale
Frequent monitoring of maternal vital signs is necessary to detect early physiological indicators of hemorrhage and shock. The nurse must assess for tachycardia and tachypnea, which often precede a drop in blood pressure as compensatory mechanisms for blood loss. Regular assessment of blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate provides a baseline to evaluate the severity of the bleeding and the effectiveness of medical interventions for the pregnant client.
Choice E rationale
Offering high-protein food choices is not an appropriate priority intervention for a client currently experiencing moderate vaginal bleeding due to placenta previa. Clients with active third-trimester bleeding are typically placed on NPO status, meaning nothing by mouth, in anticipation of a potential emergency cesarean birth. Providing food increases the risk of gastric aspiration during general anesthesia if surgical intervention becomes necessary to save the life of the mother or the fetus.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A rigid, board like abdomen is a classic sign of concealed placental abruption, where blood accumulates between the placenta and the uterine wall. This causes the uterine muscle to become extremely irritable and hypertonic, resulting in a firm, tender, and non relaxing palpation. The trapped blood acts as an irritant to the myometrium, leading to this distinct physical finding which can signal significant maternal hemorrhage and potential fetal distress due to compromised uteroplacental perfusion.
Choice B rationale
Vaginal bleeding occurs in external placental abruption when the blood dissects the membranes away from the uterine wall and escapes through the cervix. The blood is typically dark red due to its origin from the retroplacental space. While some abruptions are concealed and show no bleeding, many present with some degree of visible hemorrhage. This loss of blood can lead to maternal hypovolemia and decreased oxygen delivery to the fetus, necessitating immediate monitoring and possible delivery.
Choice C rationale
Back pain is a common symptom of placental abruption, especially when the placenta is located on the posterior wall of the uterus. The pain is often described as a dull, constant ache or sharp tenderness. This occurs because the expanding hematoma creates pressure against the sensitive uterine tissues and pelvic nerves. This discomfort is different from the intermittent pain of normal contractions and should alert the nurse to the possibility of premature separation of the placenta.
Choice D rationale
Frequent uterine contractions or uterine tachysystole occur because the blood infiltrating the myometrium causes high resting tone and muscle irritability. The uterus may fail to relax completely between contractions, which is seen on a fetal monitor as an elevated baseline. This hyperactivity can further compromise fetal oxygenation by compressing the blood vessels in the decidua. Recognizing this pattern is vital for the nurse to identify an abruption before it progresses to a complete detachment.
Choice E rationale
Headache is not a primary manifestation of placental abruption and is more frequently associated with hypertensive disorders of pregnancy such as preeclampsia. In preeclampsia, vasospasm and cerebral edema cause the headache. While a client with abruption could have a headache due to stress or unrelated causes, it does not scientifically stem from the premature separation of the placenta. The priority assessment in abruption focuses on abdominal pain, uterine tone, and the characteristics of any vaginal bleeding.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Gestational hypertension is characterized by a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg or greater that occurs after the 20th week of pregnancy in a previously normotensive woman. However, it lacks the presence of proteinuria or systemic signs of end-organ dysfunction. In this case, the blood pressure readings are significantly higher and are accompanied by neurological symptoms, which points toward a more advanced and dangerous hypertensive disorder of pregnancy rather than simple gestational hypertension.
Choice B rationale
Chronic hypertension refers to high blood pressure that was present before the pregnancy began or was diagnosed before the 20th week of gestation. This condition persists beyond 12 weeks postpartum. While chronic hypertension increases the risk for developing superimposed preeclampsia, the acute presentation of severe blood pressure elevations and neurological symptoms like blurred vision and a frontal headache at 30 weeks gestation specifically indicates an acute hypertensive crisis related to the current pregnancy.
Choice C rationale
Preeclampsia without severe features is defined by a blood pressure ≥ 140/90 mm Hg but < 160/110 mm Hg, along with proteinuria. The client in this scenario has blood pressure readings exceeding 160/110 mm Hg, which automatically moves the diagnosis into the severe category. Furthermore, the presence of blurred vision and a persistent headache are considered "severe features" or "danger signs" that indicate central nervous system involvement, necessitating more intensive monitoring and medical intervention.
Choice D rationale
Preeclampsia with severe features is diagnosed when a pregnant woman after 20 weeks gestation has a systolic blood pressure ≥ 160 mm Hg or diastolic ≥ 110 mm Hg on two occasions. The presence of end-organ symptoms, such as the blurred vision and persistent frontal headache reported here, confirms this diagnosis. These symptoms suggest cerebral edema or vasospasm, which are critical markers of disease severity and indicate an increased risk for progression to eclamptic seizures.
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