A nurse is admitting an adolescent who has rubella.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Administer aspirin to the client
Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant.
Initiate airborne precautions.
Monitor for the development of Koplik spots
The Correct Answer is B
The correct answer is choice B. Isolate the client from staff who are pregnant. Choice A rationale: Aspirin should not be administered to children or adolescents with viral infections like rubella due to the risk of Reye's syndrome, a potentially fatal condition that causes liver and brain damage. Choice B rationale: Rubella (German measles) is particularly dangerous for pregnant women because it can cause congenital rubella syndrome in the fetus, leading to severe birth defects. Therefore, isolating the client from pregnant staff is crucial to prevent exposure. Choice C rationale: Airborne precautions are not necessary for rubella. Rubella is transmitted through respiratory droplets, so droplet precautions, not airborne precautions, are appropriate. Choice D rationale: Koplik spots are associated with measles (rubeola), not rubella. Therefore, monitoring for Koplik spots is not relevant for a client with rubella.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is choiceb. Waits for 2 min between suctions.
Choice A rationale:
Inserting the catheter without applying suction is correct. Suction should only be applied while withdrawing the catheter to prevent trauma to the tracheal mucosa.
Choice B rationale:
Waiting for 2 minutes between suctions is too long.The appropriate wait time is generally around 20-30 seconds to 1 minute between suction attempts to prevent hypoxia and allow the patient to recover.
Choice C rationale:
Applying suction for 15 seconds is within the recommended duration.Suctioning should not exceed 15 seconds to avoid causing hypoxia and trauma to the tracheal mucosa.
Choice D rationale:
Encouraging the client to cough during suctioning is appropriate.Coughing helps to mobilize secretions and can make suctioning more effective.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Deep tendon reflexes 2+. This indicates that the client is receiving the therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, which is to prevent seizures by reducing neuromuscular excitability.
Magnesium sulfate is a mineral that is given intravenously to women with preeclampsia, a condition of high blood pressure and protein in the urine during pregnancy, to reduce the risk of seizures or eclampsia. It can also prolong pregnancy for up to two days, allowing drugs that speed up the baby’s lung development to be administered.
Choice B is wrong because 1+ proteinuria via urine dipstick is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of preeclampsia.
Proteinuria indicates that the kidneys are not working properly and are leaking protein into the urine. Magnesium sulfate does not improve the outcomes for the baby and can cause side effects such as respiratory depression for the mother.
Choice C is wrong because pulse rate 100/min is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a possible side effect.
Magnesium sulfate can cause vasodilation, which lowers blood pressure and increases heart rate. A normal pulse rate for an adult is between 60 and 100 beats per minute. A pulse rate higher than 100 beats per minute may indicate tachycardia, which can be caused by various factors such as anxiety, dehydration, fever, infection, or medication.
Choice D is wrong because urine output 20 mL/hr is not a therapeutic effect of magnesium sulfate, but a sign of kidney failure. A normal urine output for an adult is between 800 and 2000 mL per day, or about 30 to 80 mL per hour. A urine output lower than 30 mL per hour may indicate oliguria, which can be caused by various factors such as dehydration, blood loss, shock, or kidney damage. Magnesium sulfate can cause renal toxicity if given in high doses or for prolonged periods.
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