A nurse is caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer. Which of the following medications should the nurse administer?
Ketorolac
Acetaminophen
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason:
Ketorolac is incorrect because it is an NSAID that is used for short-term pain relief. It has a higher risk of causing irritation to the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice B reason:
Acetaminophen is the correct answer. When caring for a client who reports a headache and has a history of a peptic ulcer, the nurse should administer Acetaminophen. Acetaminophen is an analgesic (pain reliever) and antipyretic (fever reducer) that does not have anti-inflammatory properties. It is a suitable option for pain relief in clients with a history of peptic ulcers because it is less likely to cause irritation to the stomach lining compared to nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs).
Choice C reason
Aspirin is not appropriate: Aspirin is an NSAID with anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic properties. Like other NSAIDs, it can increase the risk of stomach irritation and should be avoided in clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Choice D reason:
Ibuprofen is not the right option: Ibuprofen is another NSAID commonly used for pain relief and reducing inflammation and fever. Like other NSAIDs, it can irritate the stomach lining and is not recommended for clients with a history of peptic ulcers.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D","H"]
Explanation
A, B, C, D, and H. Here is why:.
- A. Heart rate: The client’s heart rate is elevated at 118/min, which could indicate blood loss, dehydration, pain, anxiety, or infection. This finding requires immediate follow-up to assess the cause and intervene as needed.
- B. Current medications: The client is taking ibuprofen 800 mg three times daily PRN for arthritis pain. Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that can cause gastric irritation, ulceration, and bleeding. This finding requires immediate follow-up to evaluate the client’s pain level, medication use, and possible alternatives to NSAIDs.
- C. Blood pressure: The client’s blood pressure is low at 90/50 mm Hg, which could indicate hypovolemia, shock, or cardiac dysfunction. This finding requires immediate follow-up to monitor the client’s fluid status, perfusion, and organ function.
- D. Stool results: The client’s stool tested positive for occult blood and H. pylori bacteria. Occult blood indicates gastrointestinal bleeding, which could be related to the client’s abdominal pain and weight loss. H. pylori is a common cause of peptic ulcer disease, which can also cause bleeding and pain. This finding requires immediate follow-up to confirm the diagnosis and initiate treatment with antibiotics and acid-suppressing drugs.
- H. Hemoglobin and hematocrit: The client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit are low at 9.1 g/dL and 27%, respectively. These values indicate anemia, which could be caused by chronic blood loss, nutritional deficiency, or bone marrow suppression. This finding requires immediate follow-up to determine the etiology and severity of the anemia and provide appropriate therapy such as blood transfusion, iron supplementation, or erythropoietin.
The other findings are not as urgent as the ones above:.
- E. Respiratory rate: The client’s respiratory rate is normal at 18/min. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or hypoxia.
- F. WBC count: The client’s WBC count is normal at 6,700/mm3. There is no indication of infection or inflammation.
- G. Temperature: The client’s temperature is slightly elevated at 37.5° C (99.5° F), but not enough to warrant immediate concern. It could be due to stress, dehydration, or a mild infection. The nurse should monitor the temperature trend and report any significant changes or signs of sepsis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B.
Choice A reason: Atrial fibrillation is characterized by a rapid, irregular heartbeat and an absence of distinct P waves on the ECG, which is not indicated by the information provided.
Choice B reason: First-degree AV block is indicated by a prolonged PR interval without affecting the overall heart rate, aligning with the client’s PR interval of 0.24 seconds.
Choice C reason: Premature ventricular contraction would show an abnormal QRS complex on the ECG, which is not mentioned in the scenario.
Choice D reason: Sinus bradycardia is defined by a heart rate less than 60 bpm, which does not apply here as the client’s heart rate is 69/min, within the normal range of 60-100 bpm.
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