A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who presents with symptoms suggestive of epiglottitis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most consistent with this condition?

Difficulty swallowing drooling, hoarseness, and sitting in a tripod position

Rhinorrhea, congestion, mild sore throat, and hoarseness

Sudden onset of cough, wheezing, rapid breathing and difficulty swallowing

Hoarseness, stridor, and a barking cough

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. These are classic signs of epiglottitis, a potentially life-threatening condition caused by inflammation and swelling of the epiglottis, usually from Haemophilus influenzae type b. The child often presents suddenly, is toxic-appearing, prefers to sit upright leaning forward (tripod position) to ease breathing, has drooling due to inability to swallow, and may have muffled or hoarse voice. Stridor may develop as airway obstruction worsens. This is a medical emergency.

B. These are symptoms of upper respiratory tract infections, such as the common cold, and are not indicative of epiglottitis, which presents more acutely and severely.

C. Wheezing and cough are more typical of lower airway diseases like croup or bronchiolitis, not epiglottitis. Difficulty swallowing alone is not sufficient without drooling and tripod positioning.

D. These are classic for viral croup, which affects the larynx and trachea. Epiglottitis differs because it progresses rapidly, causes drooling, and children often refuse to lie down.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The combination of weak arm movement, absent Moro reflex, and intact grasp reflex directly points to an upper brachial plexus injury, consistent with Erb’s palsy. Immediate management includes supportive care, gentle range-of-motion exercises, and referral to a pediatric neurologist or physical therapist. Early intervention improves functional outcomes and reduces long-term disability.

B. Caput succedaneum is diffuse edema of the scalp caused by pressure during delivery, often crossing suture lines. It is benign, self-limiting, and does not affect limb movement or reflexes. The infant’s motor deficits are not explained by caput succedaneum.

C. Cephalohematoma is a localized subperiosteal blood collection, typically limited by suture lines. It presents as a firm scalp swelling, sometimes with jaundice as a complication. Cephalohematoma does not cause limb weakness or absent reflexes, so it is inconsistent with the findings in this case.

D. Facial nerve injury during birth, often due to traction or forceps application on the face, manifests as facial asymmetry, inability to close the eyelid, drooping of the mouth, or absent nasolabial fold. It does not affect arm movement or the Moro reflex, so it cannot account for the infant’s symptoms.

A. Pulmonary hypertension leading to increased peripheral resistance B. Pancarditis leading to long-term valve damage, especially the mitral valve C. Acute kidney injury leading to bladder insufficiency D. Coronary artery aneurysms arising from hypertension

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Pulmonary hypertension is not a primary complication of rheumatic fever. While pulmonary vascular changes can occur secondary to left-sided heart dysfunction, this is not the main concern in acute rheumatic fever.

B. Rheumatic fever is an autoimmune response to Group A Streptococcus. It can involve the heart (carditis), joints (polyarthritis), skin (erythema marginatum), and central nervous system (Sydenham chorea). Cardiac involvement is the most serious complication. Pancarditis may affect the endocardium, myocardium, and pericardium, but valvular damage, especially to the mitral valve, can persist long-term, potentially leading to rheumatic heart disease. Monitoring for heart murmurs, arrhythmias, and signs of heart failure is critical.

C. While post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis can follow strep infection, rheumatic fever does not primarily affect the kidneys, and bladder insufficiency is unrelated.

D. Coronary artery aneurysms are associated with Kawasaki disease, not rheumatic fever. Hypertension is not a direct feature of rheumatic fever, and coronary involvement is not typical.

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A nurse is assessing a 4-year-old child who presents with symptoms suggestive of epiglottitis. Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most consistent with this condition?

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Explanation

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