A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant presents to the clinic. The nurse suspects preeclampsia. Which of the following findings support this diagnosis? (Select All that Apply.)
Mild fatigue after walking
Mild headache with blurred vision
150/95 mmHg blood pressure
Sudden weight loss
+2 protein in the urine
Correct Answer : B,C,E
A. Mild fatigue after walking is a common symptom in normal pregnancy and is not specific to preeclampsia. Fatigue alone does not indicate hypertension or organ involvement.
B. Headache with blurred vision is a classic symptom of preeclampsia, indicating possible cerebral involvement due to elevated blood pressure and vasospasm. Persistent or severe headache should always be evaluated in the context of preeclampsia.
C. Blood pressure ≥140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks gestation in a previously normotensive woman is one of the diagnostic criteria for preeclampsia. This patient’s reading of 150/95 mmHg supports the diagnosis.
D. Sudden weight loss is not a feature of preeclampsia. On the contrary, rapid weight gain due to fluid retention is often seen in preeclampsia.
E. Proteinuria (+1 or higher on a urine dipstick or ≥300 mg/24 hours) is another hallmark of preeclampsia. +2 proteinuria indicates significant renal involvement, supporting the diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is indicated when an Rh-negative mother gives birth to an Rh-positive infant. This prevents the mother’s immune system from developing antibodies against Rh-positive blood cells, which could cause hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in future pregnancies.
B. An Rh-positive mother already has the D antigen, so she will not form antibodies against an Rh-negative baby. RhoGAM is not needed.
C. The mother is Rh-positive and cannot develop antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood cells. No RhoGAM is required.
D. Both mother and baby are Rh-negative, so there is no risk of maternal sensitization. RhoGAM is not indicated.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. EMLA cream is a pharmacologic intervention because it contains local anesthetics (lidocaine and prilocaine) that numb the skin. It must be applied 30–60 minutes before the procedure under an occlusive dressing to achieve effective analgesia. Applying it immediately before a heel stick would not provide pain relief and does not qualify as nonpharmacologic.
B. Intramuscular opioids are systemic pharmacologic agents used for moderate to severe pain. They carry risks such as respiratory depression, sedation, and hypotension in neonates, so they are rarely used for minor procedures like heel sticks.
C. Distraction with toys or verbal explanations is ineffective for neonates because infants at 2 days old cannot process or respond to visual or verbal cues. Cognitive engagement strategies work only in older infants and children.
D. Oral sucrose combined with nonnutritive sucking (e.g., using a pacifier) is a safe and evidence-based nonpharmacologic method for reducing procedural pain in neonates. Sucrose triggers the release of endogenous opioids in the central nervous system, which decreases the perception of pain. Nonnutritive sucking provides comfort and a calming effect, further reducing physiological stress responses such as increased heart rate, blood pressure, and crying. Studies show that this intervention effectively lowers behavioral and physiological indicators of pain during minor procedures such as heel sticks, venipuncture, or immunizations. This method is preferred for routine procedures in neonates because it is simple, safe, and effective without the risks associated with pharmacologic agents.
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