A nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is in labor. The doctor documents the vaginal examination as 3 cm, 30%, and -1. The nurse evaluates this documentation to mean which of the following?
The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines.
The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines.
The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
The Correct Answer is D
The cervix is dilated 3 cm: This indicates the width of the cervical opening, which is 3 cm wide.
It is effaced 30%: This means the cervix has effaced or thinned out by 30%, indicating how much the cervix has shortened and thinned in preparation for labor.
The presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines (indicated by the negative number, -1): This measurement shows the position of the baby's head in relation to the ischial spines of the pelvis. In this case, the baby's head is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Option A ("The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines."): This option incorrectly interprets the baby's position as being 1 cm below the ischial spines, which is not the case. The negative sign (-1) in the documentation indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines.
Option B ("The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines."): This option switches the interpretation of dilation and effacement. In the original documentation, the dilation is given as 3 cm, while effacement is 30%. This option incorrectly states that effacement is 3 cm and dilation is 30%. Additionally, it correctly identifies the presenting part's position.
Option C ("The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines."): This option correctly interprets effacement and dilation but incorrectly states that the presenting part is 1 cm below the ischial spines. The original documentation indicates that the presenting part is 1 cm above the ischial spines, as denoted by the negative sign (-1).
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice D rationale:
The nurse should state, "The purpose of this medication is to boost fetal lung maturity.”. The rationale behind this choice is that betamethasone is a corticosteroid medication commonly administered to women at risk of preterm delivery between 24 and 34 weeks of gestation. Its primary goal is to accelerate fetal lung maturation by promoting the production of surfactant, a substance that coats the lungs and prevents their collapse. By enhancing lung development, the medication helps reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and other respiratory complications that premature infants might face. It does not directly impact fetal heart rate (Choice A), halt cervical dilation (Choice B), or stop preterm labor contractions (Choice C).
Choice A rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to increase the fetal heart rate.”. Betamethasone does not affect the fetal heart rate, as it is primarily used to enhance lung maturity, as mentioned earlier. The incorrect statement may lead to confusion and misunderstanding of the medication's intended purpose.
Choice B rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to halt cervical dilation.”. Betamethasone does not stop or halt cervical dilation. Its main action is on the fetal lungs to promote surfactant production. Cervical dilation is a natural process that occurs during labor and is not influenced by this medication.
Choice C rationale:
The nurse should not state, "The purpose of this medication is to stop preterm labor contractions.”. Betamethasone is not used to stop or prevent preterm labor contractions directly. Instead, its focus is on improving fetal lung maturity to enhance the baby's respiratory function once born prematurely.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding at 36 weeks gestation is indicative of placenta previa. Placenta previa is a condition in which the placenta partially or completely covers the cervix, leading to bleeding as the cervix begins to efface and dilate. The bright red color of the blood is due to its fresh origin from the exposed placental vessels. This condition is painless because the bleeding occurs without uterine contractions.
Choice B rationale:
Preterm labor is not the correct answer in this scenario. Preterm labor refers to the onset of regular uterine contractions leading to cervical changes before 37 weeks of gestation. In this case, the key indicator is painless bleeding, which is not associated with uterine contractions.
Choice C rationale:
Threatened abortion is also not the correct answer. Threatened abortion is the term used when a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding, but the cervix is closed, indicating that there is still a chance for the pregnancy to continue. However, the bleeding in placenta previa is unrelated to fetal viability and is specifically caused by the placental position.
Choice D rationale:
Abruptio placentae is not the correct answer either. Abruptio placentae, also known as placental abruption, is a condition where the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall before delivery. This can cause painful bleeding due to the blood being trapped between the placenta and uterine wall. In the given scenario, the bleeding is described as painless, which does not align with the characteristics of abruptio placentae.
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