A nurse is assisting with the care of a client in an outpatient primary care provider's office.
Complete the diagram by dragging from the choices below to specify what condition the client is most likely experiencing, 2 actions the nurse should take to address that condition, and 2 parameters the nurse should monitor to assess the client's progress.
The Correct Answer is []
This clinical scenario discusses the recognition and management of acute gout in a client with multiple predisposing risk factors. Gout is an inflammatory arthritis caused by deposition of monosodium urate crystals within joints, most commonly affecting the first metatarsophalangeal joint of the great toe. The client presents with classic manifestations including sudden severe toe pain, redness, warmth, and extreme tenderness. Recent initiation of hydrochlorothiazide, chronic kidney disease, obesity, and regular alcohol intake all increase uric acid retention and significantly raise the risk of acute gout attacks.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Gout: The client’s presentation strongly supports acute gouty arthritis. The abrupt onset of severe pain in the right great toe with redness, warmth, and hypersensitivity to even light touch is classic for podagra, the most common form of gout. Hydrochlorothiazide contributes to hyperuricemia by decreasing renal uric acid excretion, while chronic kidney disease further impairs urate clearance. Alcohol intake, obesity, and hypertension are additional major risk factors supporting this diagnosis.
• Recommend a low purine diet: Dietary modification is an important part of gout management because purines are metabolized into uric acid. Foods such as red meat, seafood, and alcohol, especially beer and wine, can precipitate acute attacks by increasing uric acid levels. Teaching the client to reduce purine intake helps decrease crystal deposition and recurrence frequency. Increased hydration is also encouraged to support renal excretion of uric acid.
• Anticipate a prescription for colchicine: Colchicine is commonly prescribed for acute gout flares because it reduces the inflammatory response caused by urate crystal deposition. It works by inhibiting neutrophil activity within the affected joint, thereby decreasing pain, swelling, and inflammation. Early treatment is most effective in shortening attack duration and improving comfort. Colchicine is particularly useful when NSAIDs are not ideal, such as in clients with chronic kidney disease.
• Pain level: Pain level is an important parameter to monitor because acute gout attacks are extremely painful and pain severity reflects the degree of inflammation. Monitoring pain helps evaluate response to medications such as colchicine and guides further treatment decisions. Improvement in pain indicates reduction of crystal-induced joint inflammation. Persistent or worsening pain may suggest ineffective therapy or alternative diagnoses requiring reassessment.
• Uric acid level: Monitoring uric acid levels helps assess long-term control of hyperuricemia and effectiveness of preventive interventions. Elevated serum uric acid contributes to recurrent gout attacks and chronic joint damage if untreated. Although uric acid may occasionally appear normal during an acute flare, trending levels over time is clinically valuable. Monitoring is especially important in clients with kidney disease and diuretic use because both impair uric acid elimination.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Refer the client for a foot x-ray: A foot x-ray is not the priority because there is no history of trauma or evidence suggesting fracture. Acute gout is primarily diagnosed clinically based on symptoms and risk factors, particularly involvement of the great toe with intense inflammation. Imaging may be considered later if chronic joint damage is suspected, but it is not the immediate intervention for this presentation. The client’s findings are more consistent with inflammatory crystal arthritis.
• Request a prescription for antibiotics: Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are not indicated for uncomplicated gout. Although the toe is red and warm, these inflammatory findings result from urate crystal deposition rather than infection. The client has no fever, systemic infection signs, or evidence of septic arthritis. Unnecessary antibiotic use could expose the client to adverse effects without treating the underlying condition.
• Anticipate a prescription for methotrexate: Methotrexate is a disease-modifying antirheumatic drug primarily used for autoimmune disorders such as rheumatoid arthritis and psoriasis. It does not treat acute gout attacks or reduce uric acid crystal inflammation. The client’s symptoms are episodic and localized rather than chronic symmetric inflammatory arthritis. Therefore, methotrexate would not be an appropriate first-line therapy in this scenario.
• Fracture: A fracture usually follows trauma and often presents with deformity, impaired mobility, bruising, or swelling related to injury. The client specifically denies bumping or injuring the toe, making fracture less likely. The hypersensitivity to even a bedsheet touching the toe is highly characteristic of gout rather than bone injury. Additionally, the recent hydrochlorothiazide initiation strongly supports a metabolic cause.
• Shingles: Shingles typically presents with a painful unilateral vesicular rash following a dermatomal distribution caused by reactivation of varicella-zoster virus. The client has no rash, blistering, or neuropathic burning pain pattern associated with shingles. The isolated inflammation of the great toe is inconsistent with viral nerve involvement. Therefore, shingles does not fit the assessment findings.
• Septic arthritis: Septic arthritis is a serious joint infection that usually presents with fever, severe joint pain, swelling, and systemic illness. Although the toe is inflamed, the client does not have fever, chills, or toxic appearance suggestive of infection. The timing after hydrochlorothiazide initiation and classic podagra presentation favor gout instead. Septic arthritis remains important to rule out if symptoms worsen or systemic findings develop.
• Rash: Rash monitoring would be more relevant for conditions such as shingles or allergic reactions, not gout. Gout primarily causes localized inflammatory joint manifestations rather than cutaneous eruptions. The client’s toe redness is due to inflammation beneath the skin rather than a dermatologic rash. Rash monitoring would not best evaluate progression or treatment response.
• CBC: A complete blood count may be useful if infection is suspected, but it is not the primary parameter for monitoring uncomplicated gout management. The priority is assessing symptom relief and uric acid control rather than infection markers. Since the client lacks systemic signs of infection, serial CBC monitoring is less clinically relevant. Pain assessment and uric acid levels provide more direct evaluation of gout progression.
• Temperature: Monitoring temperature is more important when infection or systemic inflammatory response is suspected. The client does not currently exhibit fever or signs of septic arthritis. While temperature may still be assessed routinely, it is not the most specific indicator of gout improvement. Pain reduction and uric acid management are more useful measures of therapeutic response.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","G"]
Explanation
Assessment of adolescents following severe traumatic events involves identifying manifestations of acute stress reactions, maladaptive coping behaviors, and risk factors for developing Post-traumatic stress disorder or other mental health disorders. Exposure to the sudden death of close family members during a natural disaster is a profound psychological trauma that can lead to intrusive memories, avoidance behaviors, substance use, anxiety, and functional impairment. Nurses must prioritize findings that indicate unresolved trauma, impaired coping, or behaviors that increase risk to the client’s mental and physical health. Early recognition and intervention are essential in preventing worsening psychological distress.
Rationale:
A. Experiencing nightmares requires immediate follow-up because recurrent distressing dreams are a hallmark symptom of trauma-related disorders such as acute stress disorder or PTSD. These nightmares indicate persistent re-experiencing of the traumatic event and may significantly impair sleep quality and emotional regulation. In adolescents, chronic sleep disruption can worsen anxiety, depression, irritability, and concentration difficulties, increasing the need for psychological evaluation and support.
B. Startling easily during thunderstorms may represent hyperarousal related to trauma exposure, but the client reports a preexisting fear of thunderstorms before the tornado occurred. This finding alone does not clearly indicate worsening psychiatric instability or immediate danger. Although it should be monitored, it is not as urgent as indicators of active maladaptive coping or severe trauma-related symptoms.
C. A blood pressure of 122/80 mm Hg is within expected limits for a 16-year-old adolescent and does not indicate acute physiological instability. Mild sympathetic activation can occur in anxious clients, but this value does not suggest hypertensive crisis, shock, or cardiovascular compromise. Therefore, it does not require immediate nursing follow-up.
D. Smoking marijuana to “clear their mind” requires immediate follow-up because it reflects maladaptive coping and substance use following a traumatic event. Adolescents who use substances after trauma are at increased risk for dependency, impaired judgment, worsening depression, and interference with healthy emotional processing. Substance use may also mask worsening psychiatric symptoms and delay appropriate mental health treatment.
E. Witnessing the death of their parents and sibling is a severe traumatic exposure that places the client at high risk for acute stress disorder, PTSD, complicated grief, depression, and suicidal ideation. The violent and sudden loss of immediate family members significantly increases psychological vulnerability, especially in adolescents. This history requires urgent emotional assessment, safety evaluation, and referral for trauma-focused mental health interventions.
F. Attending school regularly is generally a positive adaptive behavior and suggests partial preservation of daily functioning despite recent trauma. Continued participation in academics and maintenance of honor-roll performance indicate some degree of coping and structure. While emotional support is still necessary, this finding alone does not represent an immediate concern requiring urgent follow-up.
G. A friend reporting that the client is “not themselves” requires immediate follow-up because behavioral changes noticed by peers may indicate worsening emotional distress, withdrawal, depression, or altered functioning. Adolescents often minimize symptoms during direct questioning, making collateral observations highly valuable. Sudden personality or behavioral changes after trauma can signal significant psychological deterioration requiring further assessment.
H. A heart rate of 99/min is within the upper range of normal for an adolescent and may occur due to anxiety or emotional stress during the clinic visit. There are no accompanying signs of cardiovascular instability such as hypotension, chest pain, or respiratory distress. Therefore, this finding does not require immediate intervention compared with the psychological concerns present.
Correct Answer is ["A","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Preoperative nursing care for a client scheduled for laparoscopic management of a confirmed Ectopic pregnancy focuses on stabilizing the client, ensuring surgical readiness, and preventing perioperative complications such as hemorrhage and aspiration. The client has a tubal pregnancy confirmed by ultrasound with declining β-hCG levels, requiring urgent surgical intervention. Nursing priorities include airway safety, vascular access for rapid fluid or blood administration, verification of informed consent, and baseline laboratory evaluation to guide intraoperative management.
Rationale:
A. Reminding the client to remain NPO is essential to reduce the risk of aspiration during general anesthesia. Laparoscopic surgery requires sedation or general anesthesia, which depresses protective airway reflexes. Ensuring an empty stomach decreases the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration pneumonia during induction of anesthesia.
B. Administering Rh immune globulin prior to surgery is not appropriate at this time without provider order and timing consideration. Rh immune globulin is typically given after delivery or significant fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not preoperatively. The priority is surgical stabilization rather than prophylactic administration at this stage.
C. Explaining the surgical procedure to the client is not the nurse’s role because informed consent and procedural explanation are the responsibility of the provider. The nurse may reinforce understanding but should not introduce or explain the procedure in detail. This could interfere with the legal consent process
D. Preparing for insertion of an 18-gauge peripheral IV is critical because ectopic pregnancy surgery carries a risk of sudden hemorrhage. A large-bore IV line allows rapid administration of fluids, medications, and blood products if needed. This ensures immediate vascular access for hemodynamic stabilization during surgery.
E. Verifying that the consent form is signed is a key legal and safety requirement before any surgical procedure. The nurse ensures that informed consent has been obtained, properly documented, and matches the planned procedure. This confirms patient understanding and protects autonomy before anesthesia is initiated.
F. Obtaining a complete blood count is necessary to establish baseline hematologic status before surgery. The client already demonstrates mild anemia, which may worsen if intraoperative bleeding occurs. Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and platelet levels guide perioperative planning and readiness for possible transfusion.
G. Administering AB positive blood products is inappropriate due to ABO and Rh incompatibility. The client is B negative, and transfusion with incompatible blood could trigger a severe hemolytic reaction. If transfusion becomes necessary, properly matched B negative or O negative blood must be used instead.
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