A nurse is assisting with the plan of care for a group of clients. Which of the following tasks should the nurse delegate to an assistive personnel?
Providing postmortem care to a client
Changing a sterile dressing for a client who is postoperative
Performing a gastrostomy feeding on a stable client
Observing the patency of an intravenous catheter on a stable client
The Correct Answer is A
Delegation in nursing requires assigning tasks based on the Five Rights of Delegation, ensuring patient safety, task complexity, and the skill level of assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to perform routine, non-invasive, and standardized care activities for stable clients. The nurse retains responsibility for assessment, evaluation, sterile procedures, and clinical judgment. Postmortem care is a task that is standardized, does not require clinical decision-making, and is appropriate for delegation in most care settings.
Rationale:
A. Providing postmortem care is appropriate for delegation to assistive personnel because it involves routine physical care of the deceased body, including bathing, positioning, and preparing the body for family viewing. It does not require assessment, sterile technique, or clinical judgment. The task is structured and can be safely performed by trained APs under nurse supervision.
B. Changing a sterile dressing for a postoperative client is not appropriate for delegation because it requires sterile technique, assessment of the wound, and evaluation for infection or healing progression. These actions require licensed nursing judgment to identify complications such as drainage, dehiscence, or infection. Therefore, it must be performed by a licensed nurse.
C. Performing a gastrostomy feeding, even in a stable client, is generally not delegated to APs because it involves risk for aspiration, tube placement verification considerations, and monitoring for tolerance. Although some settings may allow AP involvement in feeding under specific protocols, initial and ongoing assessment of tube patency and client response requires nursing judgment.
D. Observing patency of an intravenous catheter is a nursing responsibility because it requires assessment of infusion site condition, evaluation for infiltration or phlebitis, and clinical decision-making regarding continuation or discontinuation of therapy. APs are not trained or authorized to assess IV lines or detect complications that require intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E","F"]
Explanation
Progressive findings of fluid overload and declining cardiac function require prompt nursing recognition to prevent worsening cardiopulmonary compromise. The client’s day 7 assessment demonstrates signs consistent with developing Heart failure, including pulmonary crackles, cardiomegaly, oliguria, tachypnea, weight gain, and decreased peripheral perfusion. Reduced cardiac output leads to impaired renal perfusion and fluid retention, while increased venous congestion contributes to pulmonary and systemic edema. Nurses must identify findings that indicate worsening circulatory status and inadequate tissue perfusion requiring further intervention.
Rationale:
A. The chest x-ray finding of cardiomegaly requires further action because it suggests enlargement of the heart, commonly associated with chronic pressure overload or heart failure. Cardiomegaly reflects impaired cardiac pumping efficiency and can contribute to pulmonary congestion and reduced systemic perfusion. Combined with crackles, tachypnea, and oxygen desaturation, this finding strongly supports worsening cardiac dysfunction requiring medical evaluation and treatment.
B. Urine output of 160 mL over 8 hours is significantly decreased compared with the previous output and indicates oliguria. Reduced urine production may result from decreased renal perfusion secondary to impaired cardiac output. In the setting of fluid retention and pulmonary findings, this suggests worsening circulatory compromise and possible progression of heart failure, requiring prompt assessment of fluid status and renal function.
C. A temperature of 36.8° C (98.2° F) is within the expected normal range and does not independently indicate infection or acute deterioration. There are no associated findings such as leukocytosis, chills, or evidence of sepsis. Therefore, this finding does not currently require additional nursing intervention.
D. Alert and oriented x3 status indicates preserved neurological function and adequate cerebral perfusion at this time. Altered mental status would be concerning for hypoxia or reduced cardiac output, but the client remains cognitively intact. Although ongoing monitoring is appropriate, this finding does not presently warrant further action.
E. Weight gain from 60 kg to 61.24 kg over 7 days reflects fluid retention rather than normal body mass increase. In clients with suspected cardiac dysfunction, rapid weight gain is a sensitive indicator of worsening volume overload. This accumulation of excess fluid contributes to pulmonary congestion, edema, and increased cardiac workload, requiring intervention to manage fluid balance.
F. Bilateral pedal pulses decreasing from 2+ to 1+ and cool extremities indicate diminished peripheral perfusion. Reduced pulse strength may occur when cardiac output falls and blood flow to the extremities becomes compromised. This finding, combined with tachycardia and oliguria, suggests worsening circulatory insufficiency that requires immediate nursing attention.
G. A potassium level of 3.5 mEq/L is within the lower limit of the expected reference range. Although potassium should continue to be monitored closely in clients with cardiac disease, especially if diuretics are prescribed, this value alone does not currently indicate a critical electrolyte imbalance requiring urgent intervention.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The client reports dizziness, lightheadedness, and problems when skipping meals, which suggests concern for blood glucose instability and cardiovascular effects of prescribed medications. Beta-blockers such as metoprolol can mask the adrenergic warning signs of hypoglycemia, making low blood sugar more dangerous for diabetic clients. Recognizing medication interactions and adverse effects is essential for preventing complications and promoting safe chronic disease management.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Hypoglycemia: Clients with diabetes are at risk for hypoglycemia, especially when meals are skipped or appetite is poor. Even though metformin itself rarely causes hypoglycemia, missed meals combined with glucose-lowering therapy can increase risk. In addition, beta-blockers can prevent recognition of early warning signs such as tachycardia and tremors. This makes hypoglycemia the most significant potential complication requiring attention.
• Metoprolol: This is a beta-blocker that can mask common adrenergic symptoms of hypoglycemia such as palpitations, tremors, and tachycardia. As a result, the client may not recognize blood glucose drops until symptoms become severe, such as confusion or syncope. Since this client already reports skipping meals, the risk becomes more significant.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Bradycardia: Although metoprolol can cause bradycardia, the client’s current heart rate is 62/min, which is within normal range and not immediately concerning. The greater risk is unrecognized hypoglycemia because the client reports skipped meals and dizziness. Bradycardia is possible, but it is less urgent and less supported by the findings than hypoglycemia.
• Paresthesia: This is more commonly associated with diabetic neuropathy or significant electrolyte disturbances rather than the medications listed here. The potassium level is normal at 3.5 mEq/L, and potassium chloride is being given to maintain balance, not causing neurologic symptoms. Metformin may contribute to vitamin B12 deficiency over long-term use, but that is not the primary risk highlighted in this scenario.
• Metformin: This primarily lowers hepatic glucose production and generally does not cause hypoglycemia when used alone. It is safer in this regard compared to insulin or sulfonylureas. While skipped meals may still contribute to low glucose symptoms, metformin itself is not the major cause of masked or severe hypoglycemia.
• Potassium: Potassium chloride is prescribed to prevent or correct hypokalemia and does not directly cause hypoglycemia. The client’s potassium level is at the lower end of normal, making supplementation appropriate. While abnormal potassium levels can affect cardiac conduction and muscle function, they do not explain the client’s concern about skipped meals and blood sugar changes.
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