A nurse is caring for a 2-year-old child who is postoperative and experiencing pain. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Instruct the child to use bubbles to blow the hurt away.
Develop a behavioral contract plan with the child.
Encourage the child to remain calm and quiet.
Tell the parent to bounce the child softly on their knee.
The Correct Answer is A
Postoperative pain management in toddlers requires developmentally appropriate, non-pharmacological interventions alongside prescribed analgesics. At 2 years of age, children have limited cognitive ability to understand abstract explanations but respond well to play-based distraction techniques. Nursing care should focus on reducing anxiety, promoting comfort, and using simple, engaging strategies to redirect attention from pain. Therapeutic play is a key component of pediatric pain management.
Rationale:
A. Using bubbles to blow the hurt away is an appropriate distraction technique for a toddler because it engages breathing, focus, and play, which helps divert attention away from pain. This age group responds well to simple, imaginative activities that provide sensory engagement and emotional comfort. It is an effective non-pharmacologic pain management strategy.
B. Developing a behavioral contract plan is inappropriate because toddlers do not have the cognitive development to understand rules, agreements, or delayed rewards. Behavioral contracts are more suitable for older children or adolescents who can comprehend expectations and consequences. This strategy would not be effective for a 2-year-old.
C. Encouraging the child to remain calm and quiet is not effective pain management and may increase distress because toddlers are unable to cognitively regulate pain or emotions on command. Pain behaviors such as crying or movement are expected and should not be suppressed. Instead, comfort and distraction techniques should be used.
D. Telling the parent to bounce the child softly on their knee may be unsafe in a postoperative child due to risk of pain exacerbation, wound disruption, or injury depending on the surgical site. While gentle comforting may be appropriate, active movement like bouncing may increase discomfort and is not a recommended pain relief strategy after surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Acetaminophen toxicity occurs when excessive doses lead to depletion of glutathione stores in the liver, resulting in accumulation of a toxic metabolite, NAPQI, that causes hepatocellular injury and potentially acute liver failure. Early recognition and treatment are essential to prevent irreversible damage. Management includes gastrointestinal decontamination in some cases and administration of an antidote that restores glutathione levels. Nursing care focuses on timely intervention and monitoring of liver function.
Rationale:
A. Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen toxicity because it replenishes glutathione stores in the liver, allowing detoxification of harmful metabolites. It is most effective when given early but can still provide benefit even after several hours post-ingestion. Administration helps prevent or reduce hepatic damage and is the standard treatment in overdose cases.
B. Disulfiram is used in the management of alcohol use disorder by producing unpleasant effects when alcohol is consumed. It has no role in treating acetaminophen toxicity or reversing liver damage. Its mechanism does not address glutathione depletion or hepatotoxic metabolites.
C. Deferoxamine is a chelating agent used to treat iron toxicity by binding excess iron and promoting its excretion. It is not effective in acetaminophen poisoning because it does not interact with acetaminophen metabolites or liver injury pathways. Therefore, it is not indicated in this situation.
D. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose by displacing opioids from receptor sites in the central nervous system. It has no effect on acetaminophen metabolism or liver toxicity. Its use is limited to opioid-related respiratory depression and not hepatotoxic overdoses.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Prioritization in pediatric nursing is based on identifying life-threatening conditions first, especially those involving airway, breathing, and circulation (ABC), as well as acute neurologic changes. Children with sickle cell anemia are at risk for vaso-occlusive crises that can lead to cerebral ischemia and stroke. Sudden neurologic symptoms such as slurred speech indicate possible acute stroke, which requires immediate intervention to prevent permanent brain injury or death. Rapid assessment and escalation of care are essential in this situation.
Rationale:
A. Slurred speech in an adolescent with sickle cell anemia is an emergency finding that may indicate an acute ischemic stroke due to vaso-occlusion of cerebral vessels. This is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate assessment and intervention to restore cerebral perfusion and prevent permanent neurologic damage. It takes priority over all other listed conditions.
B. A toddler with osteomyelitis requiring IV nafcillin is stable compared to a neurologic emergency. Although infection management is important, it does not pose an immediate threat to airway, breathing, or neurologic function. Antibiotic administration can be initiated after addressing more urgent conditions.
C. An adolescent in skin traction reporting pain of 7/10 requires prompt pain management; however, pain alone without signs of neurovascular compromise is not immediately life-threatening. This client is stable compared to a possible acute stroke and can be assessed after higher-priority conditions.
D. A toddler with a partial-thickness burn requiring a dressing change is also stable. While burn care is important for infection prevention and healing, it is not an emergent condition in this context. This care can be safely delayed until more urgent neurologic concerns are addressed.
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