A nurse is caring for a client being transferred from an acute care setting to a long-term care facility. Which information should the nurse include in the transfer report? Select All That Apply.
A list of the client's current self-care abilities and needs
A description of the client's current medical status.
A summary listing all medications received during the hospitalization
A review of all physician orders throughout the hospitalization.
A report of resolved and ongoing client problems
Correct Answer : A,B,E
Client transfer requires structured communication ensuring continuity of care through clinical status, functional assessment, care needs, and problem lists. Accurate handoff reduces errors, supports planning, and aligns interdisciplinary management across settings.
Rationale:
A. Including current self-care abilities and needs is essential to guide assistance levels in the receiving facility. It informs planning for activities of daily living. This supports functional assessment and ensures appropriate care planning upon transfer.
B. Describing the client’s current medical status provides a concise clinical overview necessary for safe continuity of care. It includes diagnoses, stability, and recent changes. This ensures accurate clinical handoff and promotes patient safety in the new setting.
C. Listing all medications received during hospitalization is unnecessary and excessive. Only current medications at transfer are relevant. Historical medication use may create confusion. This lacks clinical relevance and does not support efficient medication reconciliation.
D. Reviewing all physician orders throughout hospitalization is not required in a transfer report. Only active and relevant orders should be communicated. Including all orders is inefficient. This reduces communication clarity and adds unnecessary information overload.
E. Reporting both resolved and ongoing problems provides a clear clinical trajectory and highlights issues needing continued management. It ensures continuity and prevents recurrence of complications. This supports problem tracking and effective continuity of care.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Suspected drug diversion is a critical regulatory and safety concern where a healthcare professional misappropriates controlled substances intended for patient use. The nurse manager must balance due process with the immediate need to protect patients from untreated pain and potential harm. Initial management focuses on the objective collection of corroborative evidence to substantiate claims of impairment or theft before initiating formal confrontation or disciplinary reporting procedures.
Rationale:
A. Educating the staff about addiction is a proactive preventative measure but does not address the acute suspicion of active drug theft. The manager must first determine if a specific violation has occurred before implementing broad educational interventions for the unit. Addressing the immediate safety risk to patients takes precedence over general staff development during an active investigation.
B. Approaching the nurse without sufficient evidence can lead to the concealment of further proof or defensive behavior that compromises the investigation. A formal meeting should only occur after the manager has reviewed objective data, such as medication administration records and witness statements. Premature confrontation may alert an impaired individual, allowing them to bypass safety controls.
C. Referring a nurse to a diversion program is a rehabilitative step that occurs only after the suspicion of substance abuse has been confirmed through an internal audit. The manager lacks the authority or evidence to mandate such a program based solely on hearsay from an unlicensed staff member. Proper investigative protocols must be satisfied before involving external regulatory bodies or boards.
D. The manager’s first priority is to conduct a comprehensive audit of the nurse’s narcotic records, patient pain assessments, and patterns of absenteeism. This data collection phase provides the factual foundation necessary to identify discrepancies between documented care and actual patient experiences. Gathering evidence ensures that subsequent actions are legally sound and clinically justified to protect patient welfare.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Thrombocytopenia is characterized by reduced platelet count <150000/mm3 causing impaired primary hemostasis. Bone marrow suppression, petechiae, mucosal bleeding, and prolonged bleeding time occur, increasing hemorrhage risk with minor trauma including invasive procedures like rectal instrumentation.
Rationale:
A. Rectal temperature is not specifically contraindicated after an ileostomy because the rectum is typically bypassed but not traumatized. Risk is lower unless active inflammation or surgical complications exist. Focus is on stoma care and preventing infection and skin breakdown.
B. Rectal temperature is contraindicated in thrombocytopenia due to high risk of mucosal trauma and bleeding. Fragile rectal mucosa can easily hemorrhage with minor insertion. Avoid all rectal procedures to prevent hemorrhage and worsening platelet deficiency complications.
C. A productive cough with oxygen therapy does not contraindicate rectal temperature measurement. There is no direct bleeding or mucosal integrity issue. Priority is maintaining airway clearance and adequate oxygenation while monitoring respiratory status, not avoiding rectal routes.
D. Hypothermia does not inherently contraindicate rectal temperature measurement; in fact, rectal temperature may provide accurate core readings. Care focuses on gradual rewarming and preventing complications like arrhythmias and metabolic acidosis, not bleeding risk.
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