A nurse is caring for a client who experienced a spontaneous abortion.
Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the most common cause of spontaneous abortion?
Malnutrition.
Fetal chromosomal abnormalities.
Smoking.
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome (APS).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Malnutrition can certainly affect the overall health of the mother and the developing fetus, but it is rarely the primary cause of a spontaneous abortion in developed clinical settings. Severe deficiencies in specific nutrients like folic acid can lead to neural tube defects, but the body generally prioritizes fetal growth until maternal reserves are dangerously low. It does not account for the high percentage of early pregnancy losses seen in the first trimester compared to other factors.
Choice B rationale
Fetal chromosomal abnormalities are the most common cause of spontaneous abortion, accounting for approximately 50 percent to 60 percent of all early pregnancy losses. These errors usually occur during gametogenesis or early cell division and include trisomies, polyploidy, or monosomy X. The biological system often identifies these non-viable genetic configurations, leading to a natural termination of the pregnancy. This is a random occurrence in most cases rather than a result of maternal health behaviors or environmental factors.
Choice C rationale
Smoking is a known modifiable risk factor that increases the risk of miscarriage, placental abruption, and low birth weight due to nicotine-induced vasoconstriction and carbon monoxide exposure. While it significantly impairs oxygen delivery to the fetus and damages placental vessels, it is statistically less common as a primary cause compared to genetic errors. Many women who smoke are still able to carry a pregnancy to term, whereas major chromosomal imbalances almost universally result in spontaneous loss.
Choice D rationale
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is an autoimmune condition characterized by the presence of antibodies that increase the risk of blood clots and pregnancy complications. It is a significant cause of recurrent pregnancy loss and late-term stillbirth due to placental infarction and thrombosis. However, in the general population of women experiencing a single spontaneous abortion, it is a much rarer underlying etiology than the spontaneous chromosomal mishaps that occur during the complex process of human conception.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Referral to a diabetes mellitus educator is not a standard or necessary part of hyperthyroidism management unless the client also has a concurrent diagnosis of diabetes. While both are endocrine disorders, their management strategies are entirely different. Hyperthyroidism focuses on regulating thyroid hormone production and cardiac symptoms, whereas diabetes focuses on glucose monitoring and insulin sensitivity. Therefore, this referral would be inappropriate and irrelevant for a client specifically seeking help for hyperthyroidism.
Choice B rationale
Management of hyperthyroidism during pregnancy is complex and requires specialized knowledge to balance maternal health with fetal safety. Endocrinologists are experts in hormonal regulation and are best equipped to manage medications like propylthiouracil or methimazole, which carry specific risks at different gestations. Collaborative care between the obstetrician and an endocrinologist ensures that thyroid levels are maintained in the high-normal range to avoid fetal hypothyroidism while preventing maternal thyrotoxicosis or thyroid storm.
Choice C rationale
Hyperthyroidism does not necessarily resolve after giving birth. In fact, many clients with Graves' disease may experience a significant flare-up or "rebound" of symptoms in the postpartum period as the immune system recovers from the pregnancy-induced state of suppression. While some temporary forms of gestational thyrotoxicosis might subside, true hyperthyroidism usually requires ongoing monitoring and treatment long after delivery. Assuming it will resolve spontaneously is scientifically inaccurate and potentially dangerous for the mother.
Choice D rationale
Monitoring thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and free T4 levels twice per month is generally excessive for a stable client. The standard of care typically involves testing every 2 to 4 weeks initially, then moving to every 4 to 6 weeks once the client is euthyroid. Normal TSH levels in pregnancy are often lower than non-pregnant ranges (0.1 to 2.5 mIU/L in the first trimester). Over-testing can lead to unnecessary medication adjustments and does not follow standard clinical guidelines.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Pregnancy induces a hypercoagulable state as a physiological adaptation to prevent excessive hemorrhage during delivery. While clotting factors change significantly, an increase in the number and activation of platelets contributes to this heightened risk of venous thromboembolism. Platelet counts generally stay within the normal range of 150,000 to 450,000 per microliter, but their increased reactivity, combined with venous stasis and changes in coagulation proteins, makes pregnant individuals more susceptible to forming dangerous blood clots.
Choice B rationale
This statement is scientifically incorrect because natural anticoagulants, such as Protein S, actually decrease during pregnancy rather than increase. The reduction in these protective proteins is part of the body's shift toward hypercoagulability. If natural anticoagulants were to increase, the risk for blood clots would theoretically decrease. Because the body is preparing for the trauma of placental separation, it suppresses these anticoagulation mechanisms to ensure that clots can form quickly at the site of delivery.
Choice C rationale
Procoagulant factors, such as fibrinogen and factors VII, VIII, IX, and X, actually increase significantly during pregnancy to favor clot formation. A decrease in these factors would lead to a bleeding tendency rather than a clotting risk. Fibrinogen levels, for example, can rise to 400 to 600 mg/dL, well above the non-pregnant range of 200 to 400 mg/dL. These elevated levels are necessary to manage the hemostatic challenges of childbirth but increase the baseline risk for thrombosis.
Choice D rationale
While blood plasma volume does increase by approximately 40 to 50 percent during pregnancy, this expansion primarily causes physiological anemia of pregnancy rather than directly causing blood clots. The increase in volume is a compensatory mechanism to ensure adequate perfusion to the placenta and to provide a reserve for blood loss during birth. While it affects hemodynamics, the actual mechanism of increased clotting risk is driven by the biochemical changes in clotting factors and platelets.
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