A nurse is caring for a client who experiences absence seizures. Which of the following statements accurately describes a characteristic of absence seizures?

Absence seizures are more common in adults than in children

Clients with absence seizures maintain partial awareness during the seizure

Clients experiencing absence seizures can present with repetitive eye blinking

Clients with absence seizures have full loss of consciousness and rhythmic convulsions

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Absence seizures are more common in adults than in children: Absence seizures are predominantly seen in children, often between ages 4 and 14. They are rare in adults, and when present, they usually reflect a childhood-onset seizure disorder persisting into adulthood.

B. Clients with absence seizures maintain partial awareness during the seizure: During an absence seizure, the client experiences a brief loss of consciousness, typically lasting only a few seconds, without awareness of the event. Partial awareness is not characteristic, as the hallmark is a sudden, complete interruption of consciousness.

C. Clients experiencing absence seizures can present with repetitive eye blinking: Absence seizures often manifest as subtle motor signs such as rapid eye blinking, lip smacking, or small hand movements. These automatisms occur concurrently with the brief lapse in consciousness, making repetitive eye blinking a characteristic clinical feature.

D. Clients with absence seizures have full loss of consciousness and rhythmic convulsions: Full-body rhythmic convulsions are characteristic of tonic-clonic seizures, not absence seizures. Absence seizures are brief, nonconvulsive events with minimal motor activity and a sudden pause in awareness rather than generalized convulsions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Ability to self-feed with the use of adaptive equipment: A complete spinal cord transection at the C5 level preserves shoulder function and elbow flexion due to intact innervation of the deltoid and biceps muscles. Although wrist and hand function are typically absent, adaptive devices such as universal cuffs can allow the client to feed independently.

B. Ability to achieve independent transfer from bed to wheelchair: Independent transfers require strong upper extremity function, particularly triceps extension and wrist stability, which are typically intact at C7 or below. With a C5 injury, triceps function is absent, significantly limiting the ability to bear weight through the arms for safe independent transfers.

C. Independent control of bowel and bladder function: A complete spinal cord injury above the sacral segments disrupts voluntary control of bowel and bladder function. Although reflex (spastic) bladder and bowel activity may occur, conscious control is lost. Management usually involves scheduled toileting programs and catheterization rather than independent control.

D. Use of a wheelchair with a chin or mouth stick: Chin or mouth stick controls are typically required for clients with higher cervical injuries, such as C1–C4, where upper extremity movement is absent. At the C5 level, the client retains some shoulder and elbow function, allowing use of a powered wheelchair with hand controls or limited manual mobility.

A. Delay in disease progression B. Improved bladder function C. Relief of depression D. Decreased tremors

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Delay in disease progression: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine with anticholinergic properties; it does not alter the underlying neurodegenerative process of Parkinson’s disease. Disease progression continues despite symptomatic management. Neuroprotective therapies or disease-modifying strategies are separate from symptomatic treatments like diphenhydramine.

B. Improved bladder function: Parkinson’s disease–related bladder dysfunction typically results from detrusor overactivity and impaired autonomic regulation. Diphenhydramine does not target these mechanisms and may actually worsen urinary retention due to its anticholinergic effects. Management of bladder symptoms requires specific interventions such as antimuscarinic agents.

C. Relief of depression: Depression in Parkinson’s disease is commonly treated with antidepressants such as selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors or other pharmacologic and nonpharmacologic approaches. Diphenhydramine has no established efficacy in mood disorders and does not address the neurotransmitter imbalances underlying depression.

D. Decreased tremors: Diphenhydramine’s anticholinergic activity helps reduce tremors and muscle rigidity in Parkinson’s disease by balancing acetylcholine and dopamine activity in the central nervous system. It is particularly useful for mild tremor management, especially in clients who cannot tolerate other anticholinergic medications.

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Eye Opening	4 3 2 1	Spontaneous To Verbal Stimuli To Pain No Response
Verbal Response	5 4 3 2 1	Oriented to time, place, person: uses appropriate words and phrases Confused Inappropriate words or verbal response Incomprehensible words No response
Motor Response	6 5 4 3 2 1	Obeys commands Localizes pain Withdraws to pain Flexion to pain (decorticate) Extension to pain (decerebrate) No response

A nurse is caring for a client who experiences absence seizures. Which of the following statements accurately describes a characteristic of absence seizures?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who has a spinal fracture and complete spinal cord transection at the level of C5. Which of the following rehabilitation goals should the nurse add to the client's plan of care?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson's disease. The client has been prescribed oral diphenhydramine. Which of the following therapeutic outcomes should the nurse expect to see following administration of this medication?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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