A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. The client reports that, since the onset of the disease, there are times when their symptoms are active and then followed by a period with no symptoms. Which of the following types of multiple sclerosis does this pattern indicate?

Primary progressive multiple sclerosis

Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis

Clinically isolating syndrome

Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Primary progressive multiple sclerosis (PPMS) is false. This subtype of MS is characterized by a gradual worsening of symptoms from the onset of the disease, without distinct relapses or remissions. It typically leads to a progressive accumulation of disability over time, without periods of remission. The pattern described by the client, with alternating periods of active symptoms and symptom-free periods, does not align with the continuous progression seen in PPMS.

Choice B Reason:

Relapsing-remitting multiple sclerosis (RRMS) is true. RRMS is characterized by distinct relapses, during which new symptoms may appear or existing symptoms may worsen, followed by periods of partial or complete recovery (remissions), during which the symptoms improve or may even disappear entirely. This pattern matches the description provided by the client, indicating RRMS as the likely subtype.

Choice C Reason:

Clinically isolating syndrome (CIS) is false. CIS refers to a single episode of neurological symptoms caused by inflammation or demyelination in the central nervous system, which may or may not progress to MS. However, CIS does not involve the characteristic pattern of relapses and remissions seen in RRMS.

Choice D Reason:

Secondary progressive multiple sclerosis (SPMS) is false. SPMS is characterized by a gradual worsening of symptoms and disability over time, following an initial period of relapsing-remitting disease. It may or may not involve distinct relapses and remissions, depending on the individual's disease course. While SPMS can involve periods of symptom exacerbation, it typically lacks the clear pattern of relapses followed by remissions seen in RRMS.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 120 and 129 mm Hg. This option aligns with current guidelines for blood pressure management following a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Tight blood pressure control is recommended to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events, such as stroke. Maintaining systolic blood pressure (SBP) between 120 and 129 mm Hg has been associated with significant risk reduction in stroke recurrence compared to higher blood pressure targets. Therefore, this option reflects the recommended approach for blood pressure management in individuals with a history of TIA.

Choice B Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 136 and 140 mm Hg: This option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 136 to 140 mm Hg may pose an increased risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events compared to tighter blood pressure control.

Choice C Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 141 and 145 mm Hg. Similarly, this option proposes a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is higher than the recommended target for blood pressure management following a TIA. Allowing SBP to remain in the range of 141 to 145 mm Hg may not provide adequate protection against stroke recurrence compared to tighter blood pressure control.

Choice D Reason:

The client should maintain systolic BP between 130 and 135 mm Hg. While this option suggests a systolic blood pressure (SBP) range that is closer to the recommended target compared to options B and C, it still falls slightly above the optimal range for blood pressure management following a TIA. Tighter blood pressure control, ideally below 130 mm Hg, is typically preferred to reduce the risk of recurrent cerebrovascular events.

A. Previous stroke B. Irritants and and hypersensitivity to medications C. Previous intubation due to status asthmaticus episode D. Bronchial pneumonia

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Previous stroke is not directly associated with an increased risk of status asthmaticus. While individuals with certain medical conditions, such as neurological disorders, may have an increased risk of complications from severe asthma exacerbations, a previous stroke alone is not a recognized risk factor for status asthmaticus.

Choice B Reason:

Irritants and hypersensitivity to medications, may trigger asthma exacerbations, but they are not specific risk factors for status asthmaticus. Asthma exacerbations triggered by irritants or medications can typically be managed with appropriate treatment measures and do not necessarily lead to status asthmaticus.

Choice C Reason:

Previous intubation due to status asthmaticus episode is correct. Status asthmaticus is a severe and life-threatening asthma exacerbation that is unresponsive to standard treatment measures such as bronchodilators and corticosteroids. It is characterized by prolonged and severe bronchospasm, airway inflammation, and respiratory distress.

Choice D Reason:

Bronchial pneumonia is not a known risk factor for status asthmaticus. Bronchial pneumonia, or pneumonia affecting the bronchi and lungs, is a separate respiratory condition caused by bacterial, viral, or fungal infections. While pneumonia can exacerbate asthma symptoms in individuals with asthma, it is not specifically associated with an increased risk of status asthmaticus.

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A nurse is assessing a client who has multiple sclerosis. The client reports that, since the onset of the disease, there are times when their symptoms are active and then followed by a period with no symptoms. Which of the following types of multiple sclerosis does this pattern indicate?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is providing discharge instruction to a client who has hypertension that has resulted in a transient ischemic attack (TIA). Which of the following information should the nurse discuss with the client regarding blood pressure (BP) management?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which of the following risk factors is associated with a client having a higher risk of experiencing status asthmaticus?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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