A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

Place the client in the lithotomy position.

Elicit a vagal response by performing gentle rectal stimulation.

Administer oral bisacodyl 30 min prior to the procedure.

Insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Incorrect. The lithotomy position is not appropriate for this procedure, as it can cause discomfort and embarrassment to the client. The nurse should place the client in a left lateral Sims' position with the right knee flexed for better access to the rectum and to reduce pressure on the abdominal organs.

B. Incorrect. The nurse should avoid eliciting a vagal response, as it can cause bradycardia, hypotension, and syncope in some clients. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and stop the procedure if signs of vagal stimulation occur.

C. Incorrect. Oral bisacodyl is a stimulant laxative that can cause abdominal cramping, diarrhea, and electrolyte imbalance. It is not indicated for fecal impaction, as it can worsen the condition by increasing the bulk and hardness of the stool. The nurse should administer an enema or a stool softener before attempting digital evacuation.

D. Correct. The nurse should insert a lubricated gloved finger and advance along the rectal wall, breaking up the stool and removing it in small pieces. The nurse should use gentle pressure and avoid injuring the rectal mucosa. The nurse should also explain the procedure to the client and obtain informed consent before performing it.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Correct. The nurse should avoid including raw fruits in the client's diet because they can harbor bacteria and fungi that can cause infection in a client who has neutropenia, which is a low white blood cell count.

B. Incorrect. The nurse should limit visits from anyone who is sick or has been exposed to an infection, but there is no need to restrict visits from young children specifically, as long as they are healthy and follow proper hand hygiene.

C. Incorrect. The nurse should measure the client's temperature at least every 4 hr, or more frequently if indicated, because fever is a sign of infection in a client who has neutropenia and requires prompt intervention.

D. Incorrect. The nurse should use disposable gloves from a box inside the client's room, not outside, to prevent cross-contamination and protect the client from exposure to pathogens.

Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"A","dropdown-group-2":"B"}

Explanation

A. Postpartum hemorrhage is incorrect because the client has scant lochia rubra and a firm fundus at the umbilicus, which indicate normal uterine involution and bleeding.

B. Seizures is correct because the client has signs of severe preeclampsia, such as headache, blurred vision, nausea, hyperreflexia, and clonus. These are indications of increased intracranial pressure and cerebral edema, which can lead to seizures or eclampsia.

C. Hyperglycemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of diabetes mellitus or gestational diabetes in the client's history or findings.

D. Hypoxemia is incorrect because there is no evidence of respiratory distress or impaired gas exchange in the client's history or findings.

E. Infection is incorrect because the client has no signs of infection, such as fever, malaise, foul-smelling lochia, or elevated WBC count.

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A nurse is caring for a client who has a fecal impaction. Which of the following actions should the nurse take when digitally evacuating the stool?

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