A nurse is caring for a client who has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the provider to prescribe?
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Azithromycin
Acyclovir
The Correct Answer is A
Rationale:
A. Metronidazole: This is the treatment of choice for bacterial vaginosis because it effectively targets anaerobic bacteria such as Gardnerella vaginalis, the main causative organism.
B. Doxycycline: This antibiotic is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infections and is not effective for bacterial vaginosis.
C. Azithromycin: This medication is effective for Chlamydia trachomatis and Mycoplasma genitalium infections, not for bacterial vaginosis caused by anaerobes.
D. Acyclovir: This antiviral agent is used to treat herpes simplex virus infections and has no therapeutic effect against bacterial pathogens.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. The nurse positions a client who is postoperative in a semi-Fowler's position: Semi-Fowler’s promotes lung expansion and comfort postoperatively, especially after abdominal or thoracic surgery, making this an appropriate nursing action.
B. The nurse uses clean gloves when administering an enema: Clean gloves are sufficient for enema administration since it is a clean (not sterile) procedure, and this reflects correct practice.
C. The nurse performs auscultation of the lungs without lifting the gown: Clothing or gowns interfere with accurate transmission of breath sounds, leading to possible misinterpretation. The gown should be lifted or moved aside to properly auscultate.
D. The nurse applies a cold compress to reduce localized swelling: Cold therapy decreases blood flow and inflammation, making this an appropriate intervention for localized swelling or injury.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","F"]
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Fetal activity: Decreased fetal movement is an abnormal finding suggesting possible fetal distress or hypoxia. It indicates reduced oxygen or nutrient delivery to the fetus, often associated with maternal complications such as hypertension or preeclampsia. Immediate evaluation with fetal monitoring or ultrasound is warranted.
B. Urine ketones: The absence of urine ketones is expected and does not indicate a prenatal complication. Ketones would only be concerning if elevated, as they could signal dehydration, starvation, or poorly controlled diabetes, which is not present in this case.
C. Urine protein: The presence of 3+ protein in the urine is a key indicator of preeclampsia. Proteinuria results from endothelial damage in the kidneys caused by hypertension, leading to leakage of protein into the urine and confirming a serious pregnancy complication.
D. Report of headache: A severe, persistent headache unrelieved by acetaminophen suggests cerebral vasospasm related to preeclampsia. It reflects increased blood pressure affecting cerebral circulation and can precede seizures or eclampsia if untreated.
E. Respiratory rate: A respiratory rate of 16/min is within the normal range for adults and does not indicate a prenatal complication. There is no evidence of respiratory distress or metabolic abnormality in this finding.
F. Blood pressure: A reading of 162/112 mm Hg meets the diagnostic criteria for severe hypertension in pregnancy and strongly indicates preeclampsia. Uncontrolled elevated blood pressure increases the risk of seizures, placental abruption, and fetal growth restriction.
G. Gravida/parity: Being G3 P2 with one preterm birth is useful background information but not, by itself, a sign of a current complication. It helps identify obstetric history and risk factors but does not reflect an immediate prenatal concern in this assessment.
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