A nurse is caring for a client who has been taking sumatriptan for several months. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a therapeutic response to the medication?
"My hands are noticeably trembling less."
"My skin is no longer breaking out."
"My migraine headaches do not last nearly as long."
"My arthritis pain is not as severe as it was a few months ago."
The Correct Answer is C
Sumatriptan is a selective serotonin receptor agonist (triptan) that targets 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors to cause cranial vasoconstriction. It effectively inhibits the release of pro-inflammatory neuropeptides and suppresses pain transmission within the trigeminal vascular system.
Rationale:
A. Reduction in hand tremors is not a therapeutic effect of sumatriptan, which is specific to migraine pathology. Tremors are usually managed with beta-blockers or dopaminergic agents. Sumatriptan does not influence the motor pathways of the central nervous system or the extrapyramidal system to decrease involuntary muscle movements or tremors in patients.
B. Improved skin condition or the reduction of acne breakouts is unrelated to the pharmacological action of sumatriptan. Triptans do not possess antimicrobial or hormonal properties that would affect the sebaceous glands or integumentary system. This statement would indicate a response to dermatological treatments rather than a medication used for acute migraine relief.
C. The statement that migraine headaches are shorter in duration indicates a therapeutic response, as sumatriptan is used for the acute treatment of migraine attacks. By stimulating serotonin receptors, it reverses the vasodilation and perivascular inflammation responsible for the throbbing pain. Success is measured by the rapid relief of pain and associated symptoms like photophobia.
D. Arthritis pain relief is not an effect of sumatriptan because it is not a general analgesic or anti-inflammatory agent like NSAIDs. Sumatriptan specifically targets receptors found in the cranial blood vessels and has no affinity for peripheral joints or musculoskeletal tissues. It would be ineffective in managing chronic joint inflammation or systemic arthritic pain.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Phenytoin is a hydantoin anticonvulsantthat stabilizes neuronal membranes by delaying the influx of sodium ions during action potentials. It has a narrow therapeutic indexand significant effects on cardiac conduction, specifically lengthening the refractory period. Due to its potential to depress myocardial automaticity, it is strictly avoided in patients with certain pre-existing conduction system abnormalities.
Rationale:
A.Sinus bradycardia is a major contraindication for phenytoin because the drug can further depress cardiac conduction and automaticity. Phenytoin possesses class IB antiarrhythmic properties, which can lead to severe cardiovascular collapse or heart block in patients with slow heart rates. Administering this drug to a bradycardic patient poses a life-threatening risk of asystole.
B.A history of cholecystitis, or inflammation of the gallbladder, does not contraindicate the use of phenytoin for seizure management. While phenytoin is metabolized by the liver, it does not have a direct impact on gallbladder function or the formation of gallstones. The nurse would prioritize monitoring liver enzymes rather than focusing on a history of cholecystitis.
C.Taking vitamin B12 supplements does not prevent a patient from receiving phenytoin, as there is no dangerous interaction between the two. Interestingly, long-term phenytoin use is actually associated with folate deficiency rather than issues with B12. Supplements are generally safe and may be necessary for patients with concurrent nutritional deficiencies during anticonvulsant therapy.
D.Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug that does not have a documented clinical contraindication with the administration of phenytoin. While phenytoin has many drug-drug interactions involving the cytochrome P450 system, ibuprofen is not typically one that causes toxicity. The nurse can safely administer both medications as long as standard monitoring is performed.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Safe medication administration relies on the elimination of transcription errorsand adherence to established safety guidelines, such as avoiding trailing zeros. The Joint Commission mandates specific labeling standards to prevent dosing inaccuracies that could lead to toxicity or subtherapeutic treatment. Clarifying ambiguous or non-standard prescriptions is a fundamental responsibility of the nurse in maintaining patient safetyand preventing adverse events.
Rationale:
A.The prescription for Clozapine 12.50 mg must be clarified because it contains a trailing zero, which is a prohibited notation according to safety standards. A trailing zero can be misread as 125 mg if the decimal point is missed, leading to a ten-fold dosing error and potential toxicity. Standard practice requires writing the dose as 12.5 mg to ensure clear communication.
B.Lamotrigine 200 mg PO daily is a standard maintenance dose for the treatment of epilepsy or bipolar disorder and does not require clarification. This dosage falls within the typical therapeutic range and the notation is clear and free of dangerous abbreviations or zeros. The nurse should simply continue to monitor the patient for adverse effects like Stevens-Johnson syndrome.
C.Donepezil 23 mg PO daily is an approved dosage for the treatment of moderate-to-severe Alzheimer's disease and is not inherently incorrect. While higher than the starting dose, this specific strength was developed to provide additional cognitive benefits for patients with advanced disease. The notation is clear and follows standard pharmaceutical guidelines, so no clarification is needed based on the dosage.
D.Fluoxetine oral solution 20 mg/5 mL administered via a gastrostomy tube is an appropriate route and dose for a patient who cannot swallow. Liquid formulations are the preferred method for tube administration to prevent clogging and ensure the full dose of the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is delivered. This prescription follows clear clinical logic and standard safety practices for enteral medication.
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