A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is taking clozapine. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
BMI of 28
Fasting blood glucose 180 mg/dL (70 to 110 mg/dL)
LDL 220 mg/dL (less than 130 mg/dL)
WBC count 2,500/mm3 (5,000 to 10,000/mm3)
The Correct Answer is D
Clozapine is an atypical antipsychotic used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia. It carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis, a severe reduction in granulocytes that predisposes patients to fatal sepsis. Monitoring the absolute neutrophil count and leukocyte levels is a mandatory safety requirement for this therapy.
Rationale:
A. A BMI of 28 indicates that the client is overweight, which is a common metabolic side effect of clozapine therapy. While weight gain should be managed through diet and lifestyle interventions, it does not represent an acute, life-threatening emergency. The nurse should document this finding but prioritize more urgent hematological complications during the assessment.
B. A fasting blood glucose of 180 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, reflecting the metabolic dysregulation often induced by second-generation antipsychotics. Clozapine can cause insulin resistance and new-onset diabetes mellitus. While this requires medical management and potential pharmacotherapy, it is not as immediately life-threatening as the risk of profound immunosuppression and systemic infection.
C. An LDL level of 220 mg/dL signifies hyperlipidemia, which increases the long-term risk of cardiovascular disease in patients taking clozapine. Dyslipidemia is a recognized adverse effect of the medication's impact on metabolic pathways. Although this value requires follow-up and statin therapy, it does not necessitate immediate notification compared to an urgent hematological crisis.
D. A WBC count of 2,500/mm3 is a critical finding indicating severe leukopenia and a high risk for agranulocytosis. This condition compromises the immune system, making the client highly vulnerable to life-threatening infections. The nurse must report this to the provider immediately, withhold the medication, and initiate protective isolation protocols to prevent the development of sepsis.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"C","dropdown-group-2":"C"}
Explanation
The client presents with hypoglycemia (capillary glucose 64 mg/dL), hypotension (90/70 mm Hg), tachycardia, and fever. They are scheduled to receive both metoprolol and insulin aspart, which can further lower heart rate, blood pressure, and glucose levels. Priority nursing care requires immediate correction of life-threatening metabolic instability before administering medications that may worsen the condition.
Rationale:
• Capillary glucose: The capillary glucose of 64 mg/dL indicates hypoglycemia, which is an immediate priority because it can rapidly progress to neurological impairment, seizures, or loss of consciousness. Insulin aspart is scheduled for administration, but giving insulin in the presence of low blood glucose would worsen hypoglycemia. The nurse must first address and correct the glucose level to prevent acute neurological deterioration. Stabilizing blood sugar takes precedence over other abnormal findings in this scenario.
• Blood pressure: The blood pressure of 90/70 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which may compromise tissue perfusion to vital organs such as the brain, heart, and kidneys. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower blood pressure and heart rate, increasing the risk of hemodynamic instability. After correcting hypoglycemia, blood pressure must be addressed to ensure safe medication administration.
• Reported pain: A pain level of 4/10 is considered mild to moderate and is not the highest priority in this situation. Although pain management is important, it does not pose an immediate threat to life compared to hypoglycemia or hypotension. The client’s metabolic and cardiovascular instability must be corrected first before addressing comfort measures. Pain can be reassessed and treated after stabilization.
• Temperature: The elevated temperature of 38.2°C (100.8°F) reflects an infectious process consistent with pneumonia, but it is not the most immediate life-threatening concern. Fever contributes to increased metabolic demand but does not require urgent correction before hypoglycemia or hypotension. Antipyretics and antibiotic therapy can address this once the client is hemodynamically stable. Priority remains with glucose and perfusion issues.
• Heart rate: The heart rate of 104/min is mildly elevated and likely secondary to fever, infection, or hypoglycemia. While it requires monitoring, it is not as critical as the low blood glucose or low blood pressure in terms of immediate risk. Tachycardia is compensatory and should not be treated in isolation. Addressing underlying instability will normalize the heart rate.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Furosemide is a loop diureticthat inhibits the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle. It effectively manages fluid overload by increasing renal excretion of water and electrolytes, though its efficacy can be significantly compromised by prostaglandin inhibition. Concurrent use of certain medications can impair renal blood flow and diminish the diuretic response.
Rationale:
A.Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent used to enhance gastrointestinal motility and prevent nausea, and it does not have a known significant interaction with furosemide. While the nurse should monitor general fluid status, metoclopramide does not interfere with the renal mechanism of action of loop diuretics. It is considered a safe adjunct medication for patients requiring diuresis and gastric support.
B.Ibuprofen is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that inhibits prostaglandin synthesis, which is required for furosemide to effectively dilate renal vasculature and promote diuresis. Taking ibuprofen can lead to reduced renal perfusion and a blunted diuretic effect, potentially exacerbating fluid retention. The nurse must recognize this interaction as it can result in decreased therapeutic efficacy and increased risk of nephrotoxicity.
C.Citalopram is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) that does not directly interact with the pharmacological pathway of furosemide in the kidneys. While SSRIs can occasionally contribute to hyponatremia, they do not block the diuretic action or increase the risk of acute renal failure when combined with loop diuretics. No immediate clarification is required for this combination in a standard clinical setting.
D.Ondansetron is a serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist used for the prevention of vomiting and does not pose a direct threat to the effectiveness of furosemide. It lacks the prostaglandin-inhibiting properties found in NSAIDs and does not alter renal hemodynamics. The nurse can safely administer ondansetron alongside furosemide as there is no significant competitive or antagonistic drug interaction between them.
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