A nurse is caring for a client who has dependent personality disorder. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse expect?
Submissive
Perfectionistic
Reclusive
Impulsive
The Correct Answer is A
Dependent personality disorder is characterized by an excessive need to be taken care of, leading to submissive, clingy, and helpless behaviors. Individuals with this condition often struggle with independent decision-making and rely heavily on others for reassurance and direction. They may fear separation and have difficulty expressing disagreement due to concerns about losing support or approval. These behavioral patterns are consistent with long-standing maladaptive coping strategies related to interpersonal dependency.
Rationale:
A. Submissive behavior is a hallmark feature of dependent personality disorder. Clients often allow others to make decisions for them and may go to great lengths to avoid conflict or abandonment. This passive and compliant behavior reflects their deep fear of losing support and inability to function independently.
B. Perfectionistic behavior is more commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder. These clients are rigid, detail-focused, and excessively concerned with order and control rather than dependency on others. Therefore, this trait does not align with dependent personality disorder.
C. Reclusive behavior is typically seen in avoidant or schizoid personality disorders, where individuals withdraw socially due to fear of rejection or lack of interest in relationships. Dependent personality disorder, in contrast, is characterized by seeking closeness and reassurance rather than isolation.
D. Impulsive behavior is more characteristic of borderline personality disorder, where emotional instability and difficulty with self-regulation lead to risky or spontaneous actions. Dependent personality disorder does not primarily involve impulsivity but rather passivity and reliance on others for decision-making.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","D","F"]
Explanation
The client underwent surgical intervention (right salpingostomy), which carries risks such as hemorrhage, hypovolemic shock, infection, and adverse anesthetic effects. Postoperative assessment findings must be carefully evaluated for early signs of deterioration. Hypotension combined with bradycardia, hypothermia, and cool clammy skin suggests potential shock or significant hemodynamic instability, which requires urgent intervention to prevent cardiovascular collapse.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Blood pressure 90/60 mm Hg: A blood pressure of 90/60 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which is a major postoperative warning sign for possible hemorrhage or shock following ectopic pregnancy surgery. Given the vascular nature of reproductive structures and recent surgical intervention, internal bleeding is a significant concern. This drop in perfusion pressure can rapidly progress to organ hypoperfusion and cardiovascular collapse if not addressed immediately. It is the most urgent abnormal finding requiring immediate follow-up.
• Heart rate 60/min: Bradycardia in the postoperative setting may indicate worsening hemodynamic instability, especially when combined with hypotension. While opioids or anesthesia may contribute, the presence of low blood pressure makes this finding more concerning for circulatory compromise. It may represent a late or atypical response in shock states where compensatory mechanisms are failing. Continuous is essential.
• Temperature 35.3° C (95.5° F): Hypothermia after surgery may result from anesthesia effects, environmental exposure in the operating room, or impaired thermoregulation. However, in combination with hypotension and bradycardia, it may indicate poor perfusion and early shock. Reduced core temperature can impair coagulation, increasing the risk of postoperative bleeding. This finding supports the concern for systemic instability rather than isolated temperature variation.
• Skin cool and moist to touch: Cool, moist skin is a classic sign of peripheral vasoconstriction and sympathetic activation seen in shock states. It reflects the body’s attempt to preserve blood flow to vital organs at the expense of peripheral circulation. When combined with hypotension, it strongly suggests decreased tissue perfusion. This finding supports the likelihood of postoperative hemorrhage or circulatory compromise requiring immediate intervention.
Rationale for incorrect findings:
• Pain rating 1/10: A pain score of 1/10 is an expected and reassuring postoperative finding following laparoscopic surgery. It indicates effective pain control and no evidence of acute complications such as severe internal bleeding or peritoneal irritation. In postoperative monitoring, significant worsening pain would be more concerning for complications. Therefore, a low pain score is a normal and non-alarming finding in this scenario.
• Neurological status: drowsy but easy to arouse: Mild drowsiness is common after anesthesia and opioid administration in the postoperative period. The client is easily arousable and responsive. This suggests intact airway protection and no immediate neurological emergency. In the absence of worsening confusion or unresponsiveness, this finding is expected and not the priority concern.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
The client presents with severe hypertension, heavy proteinuria, hyperreflexia, edema, and abnormal liver function tests, all consistent with worsening preeclampsia with severe features. These findings indicate widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm affecting multiple organ systems, including the brain and placenta. The most dangerous complications in this condition are those that threaten maternal neurologic stability and fetal oxygenation, particularly eclampsia (seizures) and placental abruption.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Placental abruption: Severe preeclampsia significantly increases the risk of placental abruption due to impaired uteroplacental perfusion and vasospasm of maternal blood vessels. This can lead to premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in acute fetal hypoxia and maternal hemorrhage. The client’s severe hypertension and proteinuria indicate endothelial injury, which contributes to placental instability. Abruption is a major obstetric emergency that can rapidly compromise both maternal and fetal outcomes.
• Seizures: Seizures represent progression from severe preeclampsia to eclampsia, which is one of the most dangerous complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy. The client already demonstrates neurological irritability, evidenced by severe headache and hyperreflexia (4+ reflexes). Cerebral vasospasm and edema increase the risk of seizure activity. Without timely magnesium sulfate therapy, the client is at high risk for convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and maternal/fetal death.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Heart failure: Although severe preeclampsia involves increased vascular resistance and fluid shifts, heart failure is not the most immediate or characteristic complication in this scenario. The client’s lungs are not showing signs of pulmonary edema, and oxygen saturation remains normal. While fluid overload can occur in severe cases, neurological and placental complications are more urgent threats. Heart failure is not the highest priority risk based on the current findings.
• Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency is a structural cervical problem that leads to painless cervical dilation and preterm birth, typically unrelated to hypertensive disorders. It is not associated with proteinuria, hypertension, or end-organ dysfunction. The client’s presentation is vascular and systemic in nature, not structural cervical failure. Therefore, this complication does not apply to the current clinical picture.
• Hypoglycemia: There is no evidence of abnormal glucose regulation in this client, with a normal glucose level of 85 mg/dL. Preeclampsia does not typically cause hypoglycemia as a primary complication. The primary risks are vascular, neurological, and placental rather than metabolic glucose disturbances. Hypoglycemia is not a relevant or expected complication in this scenario.
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