A nurse is caring for a client who has postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
Monitor blood pressure every 4 hours
Administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed
Encourage early ambulation and mobilization
Promote breastfeeding if possible and not contraindicated
Provide health education and counselling on the signs and symptoms of postpartum pre-eclampsia
Correct Answer : B,E
The correct answer is choice B and E. The nurse should administer magnesium sulfate as prescribed and provide health education and counselling on the signs and symptoms of postpartum pre-eclampsia.
Choice A is wrong because the nurse should monitor blood pressure more frequently than every 4 hours, preferably every 15 minutes until stable, then every hour.
Choice C is wrong because the nurse should avoid early ambulation and mobilization, as they can increase blood pressure and risk of seizures.
Choice D is wrong because breastfeeding is not contraindicated in postpartum pre-eclampsia, unless the mother is taking antihypertensive medication that is not compatible with breastfeeding.
Postpartum pre-eclampsia is a rare condition that occurs when a woman has high blood pressure and protein in her urine or other signs of organ damage after giving birth. It can lead to serious complications such as seizures, stroke, kidney failure, and death if not treated promptly. Normal blood pressure ranges are less than 120/80 mm Hg for systolic and diastolic pressures respectively.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Sodium nitroprusside.
This is an antihypertensive medication that can lower blood pressure rapidly and can cause hypotension, cyanide toxicity, or thiocyanate toxicity as adverse reactions.The antidote for sodium nitroprusside toxicity is sodium thiosulfate, which can be administered intravenously.
Choice A is wrong because naloxone is an antidote for opioid overdose, not antihypertensive medication.
Choice B is wrong because flumazenil is an antidote for benzodiazepine overdose, not antihypertensive medication.
Choice D is wrong because sodium bicarbonate is an antidote for acidosis, not antihypertensive medication.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
“I will have a higher risk of having pre-eclampsia or eclampsia in my next pregnancy.” This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching because postpartum pre-eclampsia is a rare condition that occurs when you have high blood pressure and excess protein in your urine soon after childbirth.It increases the risk of developing preeclampsia or gestational hypertension in subsequent pregnancies.Preeclampsia is a serious condition of high blood pressure during pregnancy that can cause complications for the mother and the baby.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin is not a treatment for postpartum pre-eclampsia, but a preventive measure for preeclampsia during pregnancy in women who are at high risk for it.Aspirin may reduce the risk of preeclampsia and related complications by inhibiting platelet aggregation and inflammation.However, aspirin may not work for women with chronic hypertension.
Choice B is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not affect the risk of developing gestational diabetes in the next pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes is a condition where the blood sugar level becomes too high during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and insulin resistance.
The risk factors for gestational diabetes include obesity, family history of diabetes, previous history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, and certain ethnic groups.
Choice C is wrong because postpartum pre-eclampsia does not require a cesarean delivery for the next pregnancy.
Cesarean delivery is a surgical procedure
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