A nurse is caring for a client who has schizophrenia and exhibits a lack of grooming and a flat affect. The nurse should anticipate a prescription of which of the following medications?
Chlorpromazine (Thorazine)
Thiothixene (Navane)
Risperidone (Risperdal)
Haloperidol (Haldol).
The Correct Answer is C
Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic medication that can help improve the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, such as lack of grooming and flat affect. It can also reduce positive symptoms, such as hallucinations and delusions.
Choice A is wrong because Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is wrong because it is a conventional antipsychotic medication that mainly treats positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but has little effect on negative symptoms.
Choice B is wrong because Thiothixene (Navane) is wrong for the same reason as choice A. It is also a conventional antipsychotic medication that mainly treats positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but has little effect on negative symptoms.
Choice D is wrong because Haloperidol (Haldol) is wrong for the same reason as choice A and B. It is also a conventional antipsychotic medication that mainly treats positive symptoms of schizophrenia, but has little effect on negative symptoms.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
You can stop taking the medication as long as you taper off gradually.
This is because lorazepam (Ativan) is a benzodiazepine that can cause physical dependence and withdrawal symptoms if stopped abruptly.Tapering off the dose reduces the risk of withdrawal and rebound anxiety or insomnia.
Choice B is wrong because continuing to take the medication indefinitely may increase the risk of tolerance, dependence, and adverse effects such as sedation, confusion, and memory impairment.
Choice C is wrong because stopping the medication immediately can cause severe withdrawal symptoms such as seizures, tremors, agitation, and hallucinations.
Choice D is wrong because switching to a non-benzodiazepine medication without tapering off lorazepam may not prevent withdrawal symptoms and may cause drug interactions or adverse effects from the new medication.
Normal ranges for lorazepam (Ativan) are 0.02 to 0.03 mg/kg/day divided into two or three doses for anxiety and 0.01 to 0.02 mg/kg at bedtime for insomnia.
Correct Answer is ["A"]
Explanation
Lamotrigine can cause a serious and potentially life-threatening skin reaction called Stevens-Johnson syndrome, which causes flu-like symptoms, followed by a red or purple rash that spreads and forms blisters.This is more likely to happen in the first 8 weeks of starting lamotrigine, or when the dose is increased too quickly. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to report any signs of rash immediately and stop taking the medication until further evaluation.
Choice B is wrong because lamotrigine can be taken with or without food. Taking it with food does not affect its absorption or effectiveness.
Choice C is wrong because lamotrigine does not affect hormonal contraceptives, and vice versa.However, the nurse should advise the client to inform their doctor if they are pregnant or planning to become pregnant, as lamotrigine may have some risks for the fetus.
Choice D is wrong because lamotrigine may take several weeks or months to show therapeutic effects, depending on the condition being treated. The nurse should encourage the client to be patient and adhere to the prescribed regimen.
Choice E is wrong because lamotrigine does not interact with grapefruit juice.However, the nurse should advise the client to avoid alcohol, as it may increase the risk of side effects such as drowsiness, dizziness, and seizures.
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