A nurse is caring for a client who has several risk factors for hearing loss.
Which of the following medications and/or classification of medication should alert the nurse to a further risk for ototoxicity? (Select All that Apply.)
Amiodarone.
Loop diuretics.
NSAIDs.
Vancomycin.
Cimetidine.
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A rationale
Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic medication primarily utilized for ventricular and supraventricular tachycardias. Its common side effect profile includes pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and corneal microdeposits. Unlike certain other cardiac medications, it is not traditionally classified as a primary ototoxic agent. It does not typically cause significant damage to the hair cells of the cochlea or the vestibulocochlear nerve during standard therapeutic use.
Choice B rationale
Loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are well-documented ototoxic agents. These medications inhibit the sodium-potassium-chloride symporter in the thick ascending limb of the loop of Henle and can also alter the electrolyte balance in the stria vascularis of the inner ear. This disruption in endolymph composition can lead to temporary or permanent hearing loss and tinnitus, particularly when administered rapidly or at high doses via intravenous routes.
Choice C rationale
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, or NSAIDs, including aspirin and ibuprofen, can cause ototoxicity when taken in high doses. These agents inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and can decrease blood flow to the cochlea, leading to cellular metabolic stress. Patients frequently report tinnitus, which is often reversible once the medication is discontinued. Monitoring is essential as chronic high-dose therapy can result in a more persistent sensorineural hearing impairment.
Choice D rationale
Vancomycin is a potent glycopeptide antibiotic used for serious gram-positive infections. It is recognized for its potential to cause nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity, especially when serum trough levels exceed the normal range of 15 to 20 mcg/mL. The mechanism involves direct damage to the auditory nerve or the cochlear hair cells. Risk increases significantly when combined with other ototoxic drugs, requiring close monitoring of hearing and renal function.
Choice E rationale
Cimetidine is a histamine H2-receptor antagonist used to reduce gastric acid secretion in conditions like peptic ulcer disease and GERD. While it has several systemic side effects and drug interactions due to cytochrome P450 inhibition, it is not classified as an ototoxic medication. It does not typically interfere with the delicate neurosensory structures of the ear or the fluid dynamics necessary for normal auditory processing.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Regular heavy lifting or activities that involve significant straining can increase intraocular pressure and may contribute to the progression or occurrence of a retinal tear or detachment in predisposed individuals. Asking about physical exertion helps identify lifestyle factors that may have precipitated the detachment. In clinical practice, patients at risk for retinal issues are often advised to avoid the Valsalva maneuver and heavy lifting to prevent further vitreoretinal traction and ocular complications.
Choice B rationale
While long-term steroid use is significantly associated with the development of glaucoma and cataracts, it is not a direct or primary risk factor for rhegmatogenous retinal detachment. Steroids can affect intraocular pressure and lens clarity, but they do not typically cause the vitreous changes or retinal breaks that lead to detachment. Therefore, while important for a general eye history, it is not a specific priority question when investigating the immediate history of a suspected retinal detachment.
Choice C rationale
Physical trauma to the head or directly to the eye is a very common cause of retinal detachment. Blunt or penetrating injuries can cause mechanical shifts in the vitreous humor that pull the retina away from the underlying choroid layer. Establishing a timeline of any recent accidents or hits to the face is crucial for diagnosing traumatic detachment. This question is a high priority during the assessment because it directly links an event to the pathology.
Choice D rationale
Wearing sunglasses is a healthy practice for protecting the eyes from ultraviolet radiation, which helps prevent cataracts and macular degeneration. However, exposure to sunlight or the failure to wear sunglasses is not linked to the mechanical separation of the retina. This question is irrelevant to the pathophysiology of retinal detachment, which involves the structural integrity of the vitreous and retinal layers rather than damage caused by light exposure or environmental UV radiation.
Choice E rationale
Dietary sodium intake is primarily monitored in conditions related to fluid retention, such as systemic hypertension or certain types of macular edema. It does not play a role in the structural failure or tearing of the retina that results in detachment. High salt intake does not increase the risk of vitreous shrinkage or retinal holes. Therefore, asking about sodium levels would not provide useful diagnostic or historical information regarding the physical detachment of the retinal layers.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The description of the immune system attacking joint tissue refers to rheumatoid arthritis, which is a systemic autoimmune disease characterized by chronic inflammation of the synovium. In contrast, osteoarthritis is primarily a degenerative joint disease caused by the mechanical wear and tear of articular cartilage over time. Providing this information to a patient with osteoarthritis would be scientifically incorrect. Osteoarthritis involves cartilage breakdown and bone spur formation rather than an autoantibody-mediated inflammatory process against the joint.
Choice B rationale
Morning stiffness in osteoarthritis is typically brief, usually lasting less than 30 minutes, and often resolving within 10 to 20 minutes as the joint moves. This is a key clinical differentiator from rheumatoid arthritis, where morning stiffness often persists for more than one hour. While the statement about 10-20 minutes is common in osteoarthritis, the presence of Heberden nodes is a more definitive physical diagnostic hallmark of the disease process itself, making it a priority for patient education on physical changes.
Choice C rationale
Sun exposure is a known trigger for flare-ups in systemic lupus erythematosus, an autoimmune condition, but it does not have a direct physiological impact on the progression or symptoms of osteoarthritis. Osteoarthritis is influenced by factors such as age, obesity, repetitive joint stress, and genetics. Advising a patient with osteoarthritis to avoid the sun to prevent joint flares is scientifically unfounded. Education should instead focus on weight management, low-impact exercise, and joint protection techniques to manage symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Heberden nodes are bony outgrowths that develop at the distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers due to the formation of osteophytes. They are a classic physical finding in osteoarthritis, representing the underlying pathological changes of bone hypertrophy and cartilage loss. Educating an older adult about these nodes helps them understand the visible changes in their hands. These nodes are permanent and signify the degenerative nature of the condition, distinguishing it from the soft tissue swelling seen in other forms.
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