A nurse is caring for a client who is 6 hr postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation to the left hip. The nurse should use which of the following routes to administer pain medication?
Intravenous
Oral
Sublingual
Intramuscular
The Correct Answer is A
Postoperative pain management requires rapid onset of action to maintain the client within a therapeutic comfort window. During the immediate post-anesthesia period (the first 24 hours), the gastrointestinal tract may have decreased motility, making systemic absorption via the bloodstream the most reliable method. Effective analgesia is crucial for early mobilization and preventing complications like venous thromboembolism.
Rationale:
A. The intravenous route is the priority for a client who is only 6 hours postoperative because it provides immediate bioavailability and rapid peak effect. Following a major orthopedic surgery like a hip fixation, pain levels are typically high and require the fast-acting relief that IV opioids or non-opioids provide. This route allows for precise titration of the medication based on the client’s immediate pain response.
B. The oral route is generally avoided in the very early postoperative period due to the risk of postoperative ileus and nausea related to anesthesia. Oral medications have a slower onset of action, typically taking 30 to 60 minutes to reach peak effect, which is insufficient for acute, severe surgical pain. This route is more appropriate once the client is stable and bowel sounds have returned.
C. Sublingual administration is useful for certain medications but is not the standard of care for acute postoperative pain following major surgery. Most potent surgical analgesics are not formulated for sublingual use. The nurse requires a route that can deliver a wide range of analgesic agents reliably, making the intravenous route superior for the immediate recovery phase of a hip surgery.
D. The intramuscular route is generally discouraged for postoperative pain because it is painful, results in inconsistent absorption, and has a slower onset than the intravenous route. Repeated IM injections can cause tissue damage and hematomas, especially in surgical clients who may be on anticoagulants. Modern nursing practice favors IV access for acute pain to ensure consistent and rapid relief.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Ferrous gluconate is an iron supplementused to treat or prevent iron-deficiency anemia. Iron is best absorbed in an acidic environmentand is known for causing significant gastrointestinal irritation. Patient education focuses on enhancing absorption while minimizing common side effects like constipation, nausea, and esophageal irritation.
Rationale:
A.Black stools are a common and harmless side effect of iron supplementation, resulting from unabsorbed iron in the gastrointestinal tract. The client does not need to notify the provider unless the stools are also tarry or accompanied by abdominal pain, which could indicate bleeding. Misinterpreting this as a danger sign could lead to unnecessary anxiety or discontinuation of therapy.
B.Taking the medication with milk is incorrect because calcium and phosphates in dairy products significantly inhibit iron absorption. The client should avoid consuming dairy, eggs, coffee, or tea within 2 hours of taking ferrous gluconate. To maximize absorption, the medication should ideally be taken with a source of vitamin C, such as orange juice, or on an empty stomach.
C.Staying upright for at least 15 minutes after taking ferrous gluconate is a correct measure to prevent esophageal irritation. Iron supplements can be caustic to the mucosal lining if they reflux or lodge in the esophagus. Remaining in an upright position helps ensure the tablet or liquid moves efficiently into the stomach, reducing the risk of erosive esophagitis.
D.Taking an antacid with iron is contraindicated because antacids neutralize gastric acid, which is required for optimal iron absorption. If the client experiences significant stomach upset, the nurse should suggest taking the medication with a small amount of non-dairy food. However, the client must be aware that taking it with food or antacids reduces the overall percentage of iron absorbed.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Disulfiram is an aldehyde dehydrogenase inhibitorused as an aversion therapy for alcohol use disorder. It causes the accumulation of acetaldehydein the blood if ethanol is consumed, leading to a highly unpleasant and dangerous disulfiram-ethanol reaction. This reaction can escalate from mild discomfort to cardiovascular collapse and respiratory failure.
Rationale:
A.A headache is a distressing part of the disulfiram-ethanol reaction, but it is not the most life-threatening symptom. While the client may experience significant throbbing and pain, the nurse must prioritize the assessment of ABCs (airway, breathing, and circulation). A headache does not signal the immediate hemodynamic instability that requires the highest level of emergency medical intervention.
B.Flushing of the face and neck occurs due to acetaldehyde-induced vasodilation and is one of the first signs of the reaction. While visually prominent, flushing itself does not pose an immediate threat to the client’s life. The nurse should document the finding but focus on identifying more severe symptoms that indicate the client is entering a stage of cardiovascular shock.
C.Hypotension is the priority finding because it indicates severe cardiovascular collapse resulting from profound vasodilation and increased capillary permeability. Significant drops in blood pressure during a disulfiram reaction can lead to shock, myocardial infarction, or death. The nurse must report this immediately so that emergency resuscitation, including intravenous fluids and vasopressors, can be initiated to stabilize the client.
D.Nausea and vomiting are very common during the disulfiram-ethanol reaction and serve as the primary "aversion" mechanism of the drug. Although these symptoms are highly uncomfortable and can lead to dehydration, they are not as immediately fatal as profound hypotension. The nurse should manage the vomiting but prioritize reporting the signs of circulatory failure to the healthcare provider.
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