A nurse is caring for a client in an emergency department (ED).
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the physician to prescribe for this client?
Select All That Apply
Heparin
Digoxin
Aspirin
Morphine
Dopamine
Correct Answer : A,C,D
An ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) occurs when a coronary artery is completely occluded, leading to transmural myocardial ischemia and necrosis. This medical emergency is identified by specific ECG changes and elevated cardiac biomarkers like Troponin I (> 0.03 ng/mL). Immediate pharmacologic intervention focuses on reperfusion, preventing further thrombus propagation, and reducing myocardial oxygen demand to preserve functional cardiac tissue.
Rationale:
A. Heparin is an anticoagulant indicated in the acute phase of a STEMI to prevent the formation and extension of fibrin clots. By accelerating the action of antithrombin 3, it neutralizes thrombin and factor Xa. This prevents further occlusion of the coronary artery while the patient awaits definitive reperfusion therapy like percutaneous coronary intervention.
B. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope primarily used for chronic heart failure or atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. In the setting of an acute STEMI, it is generally avoided because it increases myocardial oxygen consumption by increasing contractility. Excessive oxygen demand during an active infarction can exacerbate myocardial injury and extend the area of necrosis.
C. Aspirin is a cornerstone of acute coronary syndrome management due to its immediate antiplatelet effects. It irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1, preventing the synthesis of thromboxane A2, which is a potent stimulator of platelet aggregation. Administering aspirin early significantly reduces mortality by limiting the size of the developing thrombus within the obstructed coronary vessel.
D. Morphine is the preferred analgesic for managing the crushing chest pain associated with myocardial infarction when nitrates are insufficient. Beyond pain relief, it provides beneficial hemodynamic effects by reducing preload through venous dilation and decreasing systemic vascular resistance. These actions lower the myocardial workload and oxygen demand, while also alleviating the patient's anxiety and sympathetic surge.
E. Dopamine is a sympathomimetic amine used for hemodynamic support in cases of cardiogenic shock or clinically significant hypotension. The client's blood pressure is currently stable at 126/80 mm Hg, making a vasopressor or potent inotrope unnecessary and potentially harmful. Administering dopamine in a stable STEMI patient would unnecessarily increase heart rate and myocardial metabolic demand, worsening the ischemia.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Phenytoin is a potent antiepilepticthat requires extreme caution during intravenous administration due to its high alkalinity and potential for precipitation. It is incompatible with most intravenous solutions and must be delivered through a large-bore catheter to prevent extravasationand tissue necrosis. Close cardiovascular monitoring is mandatory during infusion to detect potential arrhythmias or severe hypotension.
Rationale:
A.Injecting sterile water after administration is not the standard protocol; instead, the line must be flushed with 0.9% sodium chloride. Phenytoin is highly unstable and will precipitate if it comes into contact with many other fluids. Using 0.9% sodium chloride ensures the vein is cleared of the medication without causing the formation of dangerous micro-crystals in the IV tubing.
B.Administering phenytoin with 5% dextrose in water (D5W) is strictly contraindicated because the medication will immediately precipitate into a solid form. Phenytoin is only compatible with 0.9% sodium chloride, and any contact with glucose-containing solutions leads to crystallization. Such precipitates can cause emboli or severe vein irritation, compromising the safety of the intravenous access site.
C.Discarding the medication if it appears cloudy is a critical safety action because cloudiness indicates that the phenytoin has precipitated. Intravenous phenytoin should be a clear, colorless solution; any presence of crystals or opaqueness means the drug is no longer safe for infusion. Injecting a precipitated solution can cause catastrophic vascular damage or pulmonary embolism in the client.
D.Administering the medication at a rate of 100 mg/min is dangerously fast and exceeds the maximum recommended safety limit. To prevent severe hypotension and cardiac arrhythmias, the infusion rate must not exceed 50 mg/min for adults. Rapid administration can lead to cardiovascular collapse, making slow, controlled delivery and continuous heart rate monitoring an essential nursing priority.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Diabetic peripheral neuropathyresults from chronic hyperglycemia-induced nerve fiber damage and microvascular impairment. The resulting pain is neuropathicrather than nociceptive, requiring medications that modulate neurotransmitter release or stabilize neuronal membranes. Standard analgesics are often ineffective for the characteristic parasthesiaand burning sensations associated with this condition.
Rationale:
A.Gabapentin is an anticonvulsant medication frequently used as a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain. It works by binding to the alpha-2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels in the central nervous system, reducing the release of excitatory neurotransmitters. This stabilization of overactive neurons effectively alleviates the burning and tingling sensations typical of diabetic nerve damage.
B.Acetylcysteine is a mucolytic agent used primarily to thin respiratory secretions or as an antidote for acetaminophen toxicity. It does not possess analgesic properties and has no role in managing nerve-related pain. Administering this medication would not address the underlying pathophysiology of the client's peripheral neuropathy or provide any relief for their sensory symptoms in the feet.
C.Fentanyl is a potent opioid agonist used for severe, acute, or chronic nociceptive pain. While opioids can mask pain, they are generally not recommended as first-line therapy for diabetic neuropathy due to the high risk of dependence and limited efficacy for neuropathic burning. Treatment guidelines prioritize non-opioid neuromodulators like gabapentin or antidepressants over potent narcotics for this condition.
D.Hydromorphone is a strong opioid analgesic indicated for moderate to severe pain that is unresponsive to other treatments. Like fentanyl, it is not the preferred choice for managing the chronic, lancinating pain of diabetic neuropathy. Long-term use of hydromorphone carries a significant risk of tolerance and hyperalgesia without addressing the specific neuronal hyperexcitability that causes the tingling sensations.
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