A nurse is caring for a client who reports having an allergy to penicillin. Which of the following manifestations Indicates an allergic reaction to penicillin?
Nausea
Diarrhea
Insomnia
Angioedema
The Correct Answer is D
Recognition of medication allergies is essential when caring for clients reporting hypersensitivity to antibiotics such as penicillin. True allergic reactions involve an immune-mediated response that can range from mild skin manifestations to life-threatening airway compromise. Penicillin allergy reactions are typically mediated by IgE antibodies and can progress rapidly after exposure. Nurses must distinguish allergic responses from common adverse effects such as gastrointestinal upset or nonspecific symptoms.
Rationale:
A. Nausea is a common non-allergic side effect of antibiotics and does not indicate an immune-mediated hypersensitivity reaction. It is related to gastrointestinal irritation or altered gut flora rather than antibody activation. Therefore, it is not considered a sign of penicillin allergy.
B. Diarrhea is also a frequent adverse effect of antibiotic therapy due to disruption of normal intestinal microbiota. While it may indicate conditions like antibiotic-associated colitis, it is not specific for an allergic reaction. It does not involve histamine release or immune-mediated hypersensitivity.
C. Insomnia is not associated with penicillin allergy and does not reflect an immune response. Sleep disturbances may occur due to illness, hospitalization, or anxiety, but they are unrelated to drug hypersensitivity mechanisms. Therefore, it is not a relevant indicator of allergic reaction.
D. Angioedema is a serious manifestation of an allergic reaction to Penicillin and involves rapid swelling of subcutaneous tissues, often affecting the face, lips, tongue, and airway. It results from histamine-mediated vascular permeability and can progress to airway obstruction. This is a true sign of anaphylactic-type hypersensitivity requiring immediate intervention.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"E"}
Explanation
The client presents with severe hypertension, heavy proteinuria, hyperreflexia, edema, and abnormal liver function tests, all consistent with worsening preeclampsia with severe features. These findings indicate widespread endothelial dysfunction and vasospasm affecting multiple organ systems, including the brain and placenta. The most dangerous complications in this condition are those that threaten maternal neurologic stability and fetal oxygenation, particularly eclampsia (seizures) and placental abruption.
Rationale for correct choices:
• Placental abruption: Severe preeclampsia significantly increases the risk of placental abruption due to impaired uteroplacental perfusion and vasospasm of maternal blood vessels. This can lead to premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall, resulting in acute fetal hypoxia and maternal hemorrhage. The client’s severe hypertension and proteinuria indicate endothelial injury, which contributes to placental instability. Abruption is a major obstetric emergency that can rapidly compromise both maternal and fetal outcomes.
• Seizures: Seizures represent progression from severe preeclampsia to eclampsia, which is one of the most dangerous complications of hypertensive disorders in pregnancy. The client already demonstrates neurological irritability, evidenced by severe headache and hyperreflexia (4+ reflexes). Cerebral vasospasm and edema increase the risk of seizure activity. Without timely magnesium sulfate therapy, the client is at high risk for convulsions, cerebral hemorrhage, and maternal/fetal death.
Rationale for incorrect choices:
• Heart failure: Although severe preeclampsia involves increased vascular resistance and fluid shifts, heart failure is not the most immediate or characteristic complication in this scenario. The client’s lungs are not showing signs of pulmonary edema, and oxygen saturation remains normal. While fluid overload can occur in severe cases, neurological and placental complications are more urgent threats. Heart failure is not the highest priority risk based on the current findings.
• Cervical insufficiency: Cervical insufficiency is a structural cervical problem that leads to painless cervical dilation and preterm birth, typically unrelated to hypertensive disorders. It is not associated with proteinuria, hypertension, or end-organ dysfunction. The client’s presentation is vascular and systemic in nature, not structural cervical failure. Therefore, this complication does not apply to the current clinical picture.
• Hypoglycemia: There is no evidence of abnormal glucose regulation in this client, with a normal glucose level of 85 mg/dL. Preeclampsia does not typically cause hypoglycemia as a primary complication. The primary risks are vascular, neurological, and placental rather than metabolic glucose disturbances. Hypoglycemia is not a relevant or expected complication in this scenario.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Infection control planning for a client with herpes simplex virus involves selecting appropriate transmission-based precautions to prevent spread of the virus to others. Herpes simplex is transmitted primarily through direct contact with infected lesions, mucous membranes, or contaminated secretions. The virus is highly contagious during active outbreaks, especially when vesicular lesions are present. Nursing care must focus on preventing direct and indirect transmission through strict adherence to infection control measures.
Rationale:
A. Protective environment is used for clients who are immunocompromised, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or stem cell transplantation, to protect them from environmental pathogens. Herpes simplex infection does not require protective isolation because the primary concern is preventing transmission from the infected client to others, not protecting the client from external organisms.
B. Droplet precautions are indicated for infections spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Herpes simplex is not transmitted via respiratory droplets but through direct contact with lesions or infected secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are not appropriate.
C. Airborne precautions are required for pathogens that remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or measles. Herpes simplex virus does not spread through airborne transmission. It requires direct or indirect contact with infectious material, making airborne isolation unnecessary.
D. Contact precautions are required because Herpes simplex spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact and contact with contaminated surfaces or secretions. Gloves and gowns are used to prevent transmission during care. This is the appropriate isolation method to prevent spread of the virus in healthcare settings.
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