A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for warfarin. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor?
Prothrombin time
Blood urea nitrogen
Arterial blood gases
Triiodothyronine
The Correct Answer is A
Monitoring anticoagulation therapy with Warfarin requires assessment of coagulation status to ensure therapeutic effectiveness while minimizing bleeding risk. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K–dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, and X), which directly affects the extrinsic pathway of coagulation. Therefore, laboratory monitoring focuses on tests that measure clotting time and anticoagulant effect rather than renal, respiratory, or endocrine function. Maintaining the correct therapeutic range is essential to prevent thromboembolic complications or hemorrhage.
Rationale:
A. Prothrombin time (PT) is the primary laboratory test used to monitor warfarin therapy because it reflects the function of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors, especially factor VII. The PT is often standardized using the INR (International Normalized Ratio) to ensure consistent interpretation across laboratories. An elevated PT/INR indicates increased anticoagulation effect, guiding dose adjustments to maintain therapeutic safety.
B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is used to assess renal function and hydration status but is not related to warfarin’s mechanism of action. While renal function may influence overall patient management, it does not reflect anticoagulation effectiveness. Therefore, it is not used for monitoring warfarin therapy.
C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs) evaluate oxygenation, ventilation, and acid-base balance. They are useful in respiratory and critical care conditions but have no role in assessing coagulation status or warfarin effectiveness. Thus, ABGs are not appropriate for monitoring this medication.
D. Triiodothyronine (T3) is a thyroid hormone used to assess thyroid function. Warfarin does not affect thyroid hormone levels, and thyroid function tests are unrelated to anticoagulation monitoring. Therefore, this test is not relevant for evaluating warfarin therapy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B","C","H"]
Explanation
Assessment of a reproductive-age client with delayed menses, abdominal pain, and vaginal spotting requires urgent evaluation for possible early pregnancy complications such as Ectopic pregnancy or threatened pregnancy loss. The combination of abnormal uterine bleeding, missed menstrual period, and localized abdominal tenderness can indicate an early obstetric emergency before hemodynamic instability develops. Nurses must prioritize findings that suggest potential pregnancy-related pathology rather than stable vital signs or unrelated systems.
Rationale:
A. A temperature of 37.3°C (99.1°F) is within normal limits and does not suggest infection or acute systemic compromise. There are no accompanying signs of sepsis or inflammatory process such as chills, leukocytosis, or worsening vital instability. This finding does not require immediate follow-up in the current clinical context.
B. Vaginal spotting requires immediate follow-up because it may represent abnormal implantation, threatened abortion, or early ectopic pregnancy bleeding. In a client with delayed menses and abdominal pain, even scant dark red bleeding becomes highly significant. This can be an early sign of trophoblastic disruption or tubal irritation, requiring urgent evaluation to rule out pregnancy complications.
C. The menstrual history showing a 2-week delayed period with last menses 6 weeks ago is a critical finding requiring follow-up because it raises suspicion of early pregnancy. When combined with abdominal pain and spotting, it becomes highly suggestive of possible ectopic pregnancy or early pregnancy complication. Establishing gestational status is essential for determining urgency of further diagnostic testing.
D. Hyperactive bowel sounds alone are not specific for obstetric emergencies and may be influenced by anxiety, diet, or mild gastrointestinal activity. Although abdominal conditions can sometimes coexist, bowel sounds are not the primary indicator of early pregnancy complications. Therefore, this finding is less urgent compared to bleeding and menstrual changes.
E. A heart rate of 90/min is within normal limits and does not indicate hemodynamic instability. There are no signs of shock such as tachycardia, hypotension, or altered mental status. This finding does not require immediate intervention in this context.
F. Slight inspiratory wheezes are consistent with the client’s known asthma history and are not currently causing respiratory compromise. Oxygenation is stable, and there is no acute respiratory distress. This finding is not a priority compared to reproductive system concerns.
G. Oxygen saturation of 97% on room air is normal and indicates adequate oxygenation. There is no evidence of respiratory dysfunction requiring intervention. This value is stable and not clinically urgent.
H. Abdominal tenderness, particularly in the right lower quadrant, requires immediate follow-up because it may indicate implantation in the fallopian tube or irritation from ectopic pregnancy. When combined with delayed menses and vaginal spotting, it becomes highly concerning for a potentially life-threatening condition. Early identification is critical to prevent rupture and internal hemorrhage.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Risk factor identification in a client with coronary artery disease (Coronary artery disease) involves evaluating lifestyle, laboratory findings, and medication use that may influence thrombotic risk, lipid balance, and vascular function. Coronary artery disease results from progressive atherosclerosis, leading to reduced myocardial perfusion and recurrent anginal symptoms. In postmenopausal women, certain hormone therapies can significantly increase cardiovascular risk by promoting a prothrombotic and lipid-altering state. Nurses must recognize modifiable and iatrogenic contributors to worsening coronary perfusion.
Rationale:
A. The use of conjugated estrogen is a significant cardiovascular risk factor because exogenous estrogen therapy increases the risk of thromboembolic events and may worsen coronary artery disease. Estrogen can promote hypercoagulability, increase inflammatory mediators, and negatively influence vascular endothelial function. In a client already experiencing frequent angina, this medication may further destabilize coronary perfusion and should be reviewed carefully with the provider.
B. Fish oil supplementation is generally considered cardioprotective due to its potential triglyceride-lowering and anti-inflammatory effects. It is not associated with increased coronary artery disease risk and may support cardiovascular health when used appropriately. Therefore, it is not a risk factor in this clinical context.
C. A total cholesterol level of 150 mg/dL falls within a generally acceptable range and does not indicate hypercholesterolemia. While lipid management remains important in coronary artery disease, this value alone does not represent a current risk factor contributing to disease progression. LDL is also within near-normal limits.
D. The client’s vegan diet is typically associated with reduced cardiovascular risk due to lower saturated fat intake and improved lipid profiles. Plant-based diets are often protective against atherosclerosis when balanced appropriately. Therefore, diet in this case is not contributing as a risk factor for coronary artery disease progression.
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