A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for lorazepam 0.5 mg. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Disorientation

Anorexia

Increased anxiety

Blurred vision

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Disorientation in an older adult after taking lorazepam could indicate an adverse reaction or an excessive sedative effect. It's crucial to report this immediately as it may signify an overdose or an adverse reaction to the medication. Older adults are more sensitive to the sedative effects of benzodiazepines, and disorientation can indicate potential serious side effects.

B. Anorexia (loss of appetite) is a possible side effect of lorazepam but is not typically considered an urgent or immediate concern unless it leads to severe dehydration or other complications.

C. Increased anxiety could potentially occur due to paradoxical reactions to benzodiazepines; however, it's not typically considered an urgent or immediate concern unless it's severe or distressing to the client.

D. Blurred vision is a common side effect of lorazepam and other benzodiazepines. While it should be monitored and reported, it might not be considered an urgent concern unless it's significantly affecting the client's ability to function or is accompanied by other severe symptoms.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Salmeterol:

Salmeterol is a long-acting beta-agonist bronchodilator used for respiratory conditions. While it does not directly cause sedation, the individual response may vary, and caution should be taken if the client experiences dizziness or lightheadedness.

B. Diazepam:

Diazepam is a medication that belongs to the benzodiazepine class and can cause sedation, drowsiness, and impaired coordination. These side effects increase the risk of falls, especially in older adults. Fall precautions may include measures such as bed alarms, non-skid socks, and close monitoring when the client is ambulating.

C. Misoprostol:

Misoprostol is a medication used to prevent gastric ulcers, and it does not typically cause sedation or affect coordination.

D. Penicillin G:

Penicillin G is an antibiotic and does not have sedative effects that would necessitate fall precautions.

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

To administer lorazepam 1 mg PO to an older adult client who has insomnia and who cannot swallow oral tablets, the nurse should use the lorazepam oral solution 2 mg/mL.

The nurse should calculate the dose by using the formula: Dose (mL) = Desired dose (mg) / Available dose (mg/mL).

In this case, the desired dose is 1 mg and the available dose is 2 mg/mL.

Therefore, the dose (mL) = 1 mg / 2 mg/mL = 0.5 mL.

The nurse should plan to administer 0.5 mL of lorazepam oral solution to the client.

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A nurse is caring for an older adult client who has a prescription for lorazepam 0.5 mg. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record. For which of the following medications should the nurse place the client on fall precautions?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Explanation

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