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A nurse is preparing to administer lorazepam 1 mg PO to an older adult client who has insomnia and who cannot swallow oral tablets.

Available is lorazepam oral solution 2 mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse plan to administer?
(Round to the nearest tenth. Use a leading zero if it applies.)
Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["0.5"]

Step 1 is to determine the amount of lorazepam that needs to be administered, which is 1 mg.

Step 2 is to calculate the volume of lorazepam oral solution needed to deliver this dose. This is done using the formula:

Dose (mg) ÷ Concentration (mg/mL)

Given that the solution has a concentration of 2 mg/mL, we calculate:

1 mg ÷ 2 mg/mL = 0.5 mL

Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.5 mL of lorazepam oral solution.


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Blood backing up in the IV tubing indicates a problem with the IV line, not necessarily infiltration.

Choice B rationale:

A long red streak up the arm could indicate phlebitis, not infiltration.

Choice C rationale:

Loose tape could cause the IV needle to dislodge, but it doesn’t directly indicate infiltration.

Choice D rationale:

Swelling around the IV site is a common sign of infiltration.

So, the correct answer is D. “My baby’s fingers are looking swollen.”.

Correct Answer is ["10"]

Explanation

Step 1 is to calculate the amount of hydroxyzine HCL in each mL of the oral suspension. This is done by dividing the total amount of hydroxyzine HCL (25 mg) by the total volume (5 mL), which gives us 5 mg/mL. Step 2 is to calculate the volume of oral suspension that contains 50 mg of hydroxyzine HCL. This is done by dividing the prescribed dose (50 mg) by the concentration of the oral suspension (5 mg/mL). So, 50 mg ÷ 5 mg/mL = 10 mL.

So, the correct answer is 10 mL.

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