A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is having difficulty sleeping and has a new prescription for a medication to help them sleep. Which of the following medications should the nurse identify as a first-line sleep aid for older adults?
Alprazolam
Eszopiclone
Melatonin
Diphenhydramine
The Correct Answer is C
A. Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine used primarily for anxiety and panic disorders. Benzodiazepines are generally not recommended as first-line sleep aids in older adults due to increased risk of falls, cognitive impairment, dependence, and respiratory depression.
B. Eszopiclone is a non-benzodiazepine sedative-hypnotic used for insomnia. While it is effective for sleep initiation and maintenance, it carries risks for older adults similar to benzodiazepines, including dizziness, confusion, and increased fall risk. Therefore, it is not considered a first-line option for older adults.
C. Melatonin is a hormone that regulates the sleep-wake cycle and is considered a first-line pharmacological sleep aid for older adults. It has a favorable safety profile, minimal risk of dependency, and is effective in correcting circadian rhythm disturbances often seen in older adults. It is preferred over sedative-hypnotics and antihistamines for this population.
D. Diphenhydramine is an over-the-counter antihistamine with sedative effects. It is not recommended for older adults due to its strong anticholinergic properties, which can cause confusion, urinary retention, constipation, and increased risk of falls.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. This is a defining feature of hypersomnia. Clients experience excessive daytime sleepiness despite getting adequate or even prolonged sleep at night. The sleep is often non-restorative, meaning the client wakes still feeling tired, and additional sleep does not resolve the fatigue. This distinguishes hypersomnia from simple sleep deprivation.
B. While circadian rhythm disorders (like delayed sleep phase or shift work sleep disorder) can cause sleepiness, hypersomnia is not primarily caused by circadian rhythm disruption. It is a sleep disorder characterized by excessive sleepiness even with a normal sleep-wake schedule.
C. Hypersomnia actually impairs attention, concentration, and cognitive performance due to persistent sleepiness. Clients may experience difficulty focusing, memory lapses, and slowed mental processing, so a longer attention span is incorrect.
D. Lack of hypocretin (orexin) is primarily associated with narcolepsy type 1 (NT1), which includes cataplexy, not hypersomnia. Hypersomnia generally occurs without hypocretin deficiency.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Hypersomnia, or excessive daytime sleepiness, is a common symptom of obstructive sleep apnea, not a risk factor. It results from repeated arousals during sleep due to airway obstruction, leading to non-restorative sleep. While important to recognize clinically, it does not contribute to the development of OSA.
B. Obesity is the most significant risk factor for OSA in adults. Excess fatty tissue, especially in the neck and pharyngeal area, narrows the upper airway and increases the likelihood of airway collapse during sleep. Additionally, obesity can exacerbate comorbid conditions like hypertension, insulin resistance, and metabolic syndrome, which are commonly seen in OSA patients. Research shows that even modest weight loss can significantly reduce the severity of OSA.
C. The glossal (tongue) muscles help maintain airway patency. Active and well-toned muscles protect against airway collapse during sleep. Conversely, decreased muscle tone or neuromuscular dysfunction increases risk. Therefore, active glossal muscle function is protective, not a risk factor.
D. Enlarged tonsils can obstruct the airway, particularly in children, and contribute to OSA. Tonsillectomy often reduces or resolves OSA symptoms by removing this obstruction. A history of tonsillectomy, therefore, lowers risk rather than increasing it.
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