A nurse is changing the dressing of a client who is 1 week postoperative following abdominal surgery and notes the presence of serosanguineous drainage. The nurse should recognize that this is an indication of which of the following circumstances?
Serosanguineous drainage at this time is expected after abdominal surgery
Serosanguineous drainage at this time is a manifestation of infection
Serosanguineous drainage at this time is a manifestation of hemorrhage
Serosanguineous drainage requires immediate surgical intervention
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Serosanguineous drainage, a mix of serous fluid and blood, is expected 1 week post-abdominal surgery during the inflammatory and proliferative healing phases. It indicates normal wound healing, making this the correct interpretation.
Choice B reason: Infection typically causes purulent drainage (thick, yellow-green) with odor or fever, not serosanguineous drainage. The described drainage aligns with normal healing, making infection an incorrect assumption at this stage.
Choice C reason: Hemorrhage involves sanguineous drainage (bright red, heavy blood), not serosanguineous, which is lighter and mixed. The drainage described does not suggest active bleeding, making hemorrhage an incorrect interpretation.
Choice D reason: Serosanguineous drainage is normal and does not warrant immediate surgical intervention unless accompanied by signs like excessive bleeding or dehiscence. This drainage is expected, making surgical intervention unnecessary and incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason -year-old patient after a neck surgery: Log rolling is indicated for neck surgery patients to maintain spinal alignment, preventing injury to the surgical site or spinal cord. This technique ensures the neck and spine remain stable during repositioning, making it essential for this patient’s safety and recovery.
Choice B reason: A 68-year-old with hypostatic pneumonia does not require log rolling, as it primarily affects lung consolidation, not spinal stability. Standard repositioning to promote lung expansion is sufficient, making this technique unnecessary for this patient’s condition.
Choice C reason: An 84-year-old with a stage IV sacral pressure ulcer needs careful positioning to avoid pressure, but log rolling is not specifically indicated. Gentle repositioning with pressure relief is more appropriate, as spinal alignment is not a primary concern.
Choice D reason: A 54-year-old post-total knee replacement patient requires leg positioning to prevent dislocation, but not but log rolling not, which is specific for to spinal stability. Standard repositioning positioning with abduction devices is preferred, making making log rolling inappropriate for this patient.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Poor appetite for 3 days may lead to nutritional deficits, increasing ulcer risk long-term, but immediate risk is lower. Fecal incontinence causes ongoing moisture, making it a higher priority risk factor.
Choice B reason: A raised red rash on the shin may indicate irritation or infection but does not directly contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Incontinence-related moisture is a greater risk, making this incorrect.
Choice C reason: Capillary refill less than 2 seconds indicates normal perfusion, not a risk for pressure ulcers. Poor perfusion increases risk, but incontinence’s moisture directly threatens skin integrity, making this incorrect.
Choice D reason: Fecal incontinence increases pressure ulcer risk by exposing skin to moisture and irritants, causing maceration and breakdown. This is a primary risk factor, making it the patient most at risk.
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