A nurse is collecting data from a client who has pyelonephritis and is receiving gentamicin IV infusion. Which of the following manifestations should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the treatment?
Chvostek's sign
Slurred speech
Constipation
Hypertension
The Correct Answer is B
Monitoring a client receiving aminoglycoside therapy for pyelonephritis involves close observation for signs of toxicity, especially affecting the kidneys, ears, and neuromuscular system. Gentamicin is effective against serious infections such as pyelonephritis but carries significant risk for ototoxicity and neuromuscular blockade. Early identification of adverse effects is essential to prevent permanent damage, particularly to hearing and neuromuscular function.
Rationale:
A. Chvostek’s sign is associated with hypocalcemia and neuromuscular irritability, not gentamicin toxicity. It is typically seen in conditions affecting calcium balance, such as hypoparathyroidism. Therefore, it is not an expected adverse effect of this medication.
B. Slurred speech may indicate neuromuscular blockade, a serious adverse effect of Gentamicin. Aminoglycosides can interfere with neuromuscular transmission, leading to muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and bulbar symptoms such as dysarthria. This finding requires immediate intervention as it may precede respiratory compromise.
C. Constipation is not a typical adverse effect of gentamicin. Aminoglycosides more commonly affect renal function and cranial nerve VIII rather than gastrointestinal motility. Therefore, this finding is unrelated to drug toxicity.
D. Hypertension is not a characteristic adverse effect of gentamicin. The drug is more strongly associated with nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and neuromuscular blockade rather than changes in blood pressure regulation. Monitoring should focus on renal function and neurologic status instead.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Iron supplementation with ferrous sulfate is commonly prescribed during pregnancy to prevent or treat iron-deficiency anemia. While effective in improving hemoglobin levels and supporting fetal oxygen delivery, it is associated with several gastrointestinal side effects. Nurses must monitor for expected adverse effects, reinforce dietary and medication teaching, and identify findings that may require further intervention. Patient education is essential to improve adherence and reduce discomfort during therapy.
Rationale:
A. Dry mouth is not a typical adverse effect of Ferrous sulfate. Iron therapy primarily affects the gastrointestinal tract rather than salivary secretion. While dry mouth may occur from other causes, it is not a common or expected reaction requiring reporting in this context.
B. Tinnitus is not associated with routine therapeutic doses of iron supplementation. Although it can occur with iron toxicity in severe overdose situations, it is not a common side effect at prescribed levels. Therefore, it does not represent an expected finding in standard therapy during pregnancy.
C. Hematuria is not a known adverse effect of ferrous sulfate. Iron supplementation does not typically affect renal function or urinary tract integrity. If hematuria occurs, it would warrant investigation for unrelated urinary or renal pathology rather than medication side effects.
D. Constipation is a common and expected adverse effect of iron supplementation due to its irritant effect on the gastrointestinal mucosa and reduced intestinal motility. Clients taking iron during pregnancy are frequently advised to increase fiber and fluid intake to minimize this effect. Stool softeners may also be recommended to improve tolerance and adherence to therapy.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Informed consent for surgical procedures such as an emergency appendectomy requires legal authorization from the individual who has decision-making capacity. In the case of a 17-year-old client, the ability to consent depends on emancipation status, marital status, and legal recognition as an adult for healthcare decisions. Consent must be obtained from the person who is legally and cognitively able to understand the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. This ensures respect for patient autonomy and legal compliance in surgical care.
Rationale:
A. The provider is responsible for explaining the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives, but does not sign the informed consent form. The provider’s role is to ensure the client is fully informed and competent to make a decision. Signing the form is not within the provider’s legal responsibility, even in emergency situations.
B. The client’s partner does not have legal authority to provide informed consent unless granted legal guardianship or power of attorney. Marriage alone does not automatically transfer decision-making rights for minors in all jurisdictions unless the minor is legally emancipated. Therefore, the partner cannot sign the consent form in this situation.
C. The client’s caregiver also does not have legal authority to provide informed consent unless they are the legally appointed guardian. Caregivers may provide support or input, but they cannot override the client’s autonomous decision-making rights if the client is legally able to consent. Their role is supportive rather than decisional.
D. The client is the appropriate individual to sign the informed consent form because marriage may confer legal emancipation status, depending on jurisdiction, granting them adult decision-making rights. An emancipated minor or legally recognized adult has the authority to consent to surgical procedures independently. The nurse should ensure the client understands the procedure and is mentally competent before witnessing the signature.
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