A nurse is collecting data from a client who is 1 day postoperative following a transurethral resection of the prostate. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
Frequent urge to urinate
Urine output of 300 mL over 8 hr
Occasional small clots in the urine
Dark red urine
The Correct Answer is B
Postoperative monitoring after a transurethral resection of the prostate (Transurethral resection of the prostate) focuses on ensuring adequate urinary drainage, identifying bleeding, and maintaining catheter patency. Clients typically have continuous bladder irrigation to prevent clot formation and urinary obstruction. Normal postoperative findings may include some hematuria and urinary urgency due to bladder irritation. However, adequate urine output is essential to ensure kidney function and prevent complications such as urinary retention or obstruction.
Rationale:
A. Frequent urge to urinate is an expected postoperative finding due to bladder spasms caused by irritation from the catheter and surgical site. This sensation does not necessarily indicate obstruction or complication. It is a common and self-limiting effect after prostate surgery.
B. A urine output of 300 mL over 8 hours is low and may indicate urinary obstruction, poor catheter drainage, or impaired renal perfusion. In a post-TURP client, maintaining adequate urine output is critical to prevent bladder distention and clot retention. This finding requires immediate provider notification and further evaluation.
C. Occasional small clots in the urine are expected in the early postoperative period due to surgical site healing and tissue disruption. Continuous bladder irrigation is used to prevent these clots from obstructing urinary flow. Small clots alone are not an emergency finding unless accompanied by decreased output or blockage.
D. Dark red urine is expected immediately following surgery due to bleeding from the resected prostate tissue. Hematuria typically gradually lightens over time with continuous bladder irrigation. This finding alone does not require urgent intervention unless it becomes heavy or associated with obstruction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Infection control planning for a client with herpes simplex virus involves selecting appropriate transmission-based precautions to prevent spread of the virus to others. Herpes simplex is transmitted primarily through direct contact with infected lesions, mucous membranes, or contaminated secretions. The virus is highly contagious during active outbreaks, especially when vesicular lesions are present. Nursing care must focus on preventing direct and indirect transmission through strict adherence to infection control measures.
Rationale:
A. Protective environment is used for clients who are immunocompromised, such as those undergoing chemotherapy or stem cell transplantation, to protect them from environmental pathogens. Herpes simplex infection does not require protective isolation because the primary concern is preventing transmission from the infected client to others, not protecting the client from external organisms.
B. Droplet precautions are indicated for infections spread through large respiratory droplets, such as influenza or pertussis. Herpes simplex is not transmitted via respiratory droplets but through direct contact with lesions or infected secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are not appropriate.
C. Airborne precautions are required for pathogens that remain suspended in the air, such as tuberculosis or measles. Herpes simplex virus does not spread through airborne transmission. It requires direct or indirect contact with infectious material, making airborne isolation unnecessary.
D. Contact precautions are required because Herpes simplex spreads through direct skin-to-skin contact and contact with contaminated surfaces or secretions. Gloves and gowns are used to prevent transmission during care. This is the appropriate isolation method to prevent spread of the virus in healthcare settings.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Infection prevention education in the community focuses on reducing exposure to infectious organisms through proper hygiene, safe food handling, and environmental cleanliness. Many foodborne illnesses are caused by cross-contamination, where bacteria from raw animal products are transferred to ready-to-eat foods. Teaching safe kitchen practices is essential to reduce gastrointestinal infections and other preventable illnesses. Nurses emphasize evidence-based strategies that interrupt transmission routes of pathogens.
Rationale:
A. Cleaning a pet’s litter box once a week is incorrect because litter boxes should be cleaned daily to reduce exposure to pathogens such as Toxoplasma gondii. Delayed cleaning increases the risk of environmental contamination and transmission of zoonotic infections. More frequent hygiene practices are required for effective infection prevention.
B. Taking antibiotics for viral illnesses such as coughs or colds is inappropriate because antibiotics are ineffective against viruses. Overuse contributes to antimicrobial resistance and does not shorten viral illness duration. Viral infections require supportive care rather than antibiotic therapy.
C. Using separate cutting boards for raw meat and vegetables helps prevent cross-contamination of pathogens such as Salmonella and E. coli. Raw meat can harbor bacteria that may spread to ready-to-eat foods if shared surfaces are used. This is a key food safety practice in infection prevention education.
D. Allowing frozen foods to thaw on the countertop increases the risk of bacterial growth because food may enter the “danger zone” temperature range where microorganisms multiply rapidly. Safe thawing methods include refrigeration, cold water, or microwave thawing. Improper thawing practices significantly increase foodborne illness risk.
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