A nurse is conducting medication reconciliation and needs to match each drug to its appropriate drug class to ensure safe administration and monitor for potential interactions. Which of the following drug and drug class pairings are correct?
Amlodipine - Beta blocker.
Amphotericin - broad spectrum antibiotic.
Warfarin - Anticoagulant.
Metformin - Anticoagulant.
Lisinopril - ACE inhibitor.
Pantoprazole - Proton Pump Inhibitor.
Correct Answer : C,E,F
This question tests the nurse's ability to categorize medications into their correct therapeutic drug classes. This knowledge is essential for accurate medication reconciliation, as it allows the nurse to identify potential adverse effects, plan appropriate nursing monitoring, and avoid dangerous drug-drug interactions in practice.
Choice A rationale
Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, not a beta blocker. It works by inhibiting calcium ion influx into vascular smooth muscle, causing vasodilation to lower blood pressure. Beta blockers, conversely, work by antagonizing beta-adrenergic receptors in the heart.
Choice B rationale
Amphotericin B is a potent antifungal agent, not a broad-spectrum antibiotic. It acts by binding to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes, creating pores that cause leakage of cellular contents, leading to fungal cell death in systemic infections.
Choice C rationale
Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. It is correctly classified as an anticoagulant used to prevent thromboembolic events, such as deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism, in high-risk patients.
Choice D rationale
Metformin is an oral biguanide used as an antidiabetic agent to improve insulin sensitivity. It is not an anticoagulant. It works by decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, which helps manage blood glucose levels.
Choice E rationale
Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that blocks the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, a potent vasoconstrictor. This classification is correct, as it is widely used to treat hypertension and heart failure by promoting systemic vasodilation and reducing afterload.
Choice F rationale
Pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that suppresses the hydrogen-potassium ATPase enzyme system in gastric parietal cells. This classification is correct, as it effectively reduces gastric acid secretion, making it useful for treating gastroesophageal reflux disease and peptic ulcer disease.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This question focuses on emergency management of drug-induced anaphylaxis. It requires identifying the most urgent nursing action to stop the delivery of the offending antigen, which is the necessary first step to mitigate the severity of the systemic, life-threatening allergic reaction being experienced.
Choice A rationale
While providing oxygen and breathing support is a critical component of managing anaphylaxis, stopping the source of the allergen takes absolute priority to prevent further progression of the reaction, ensuring that no more of the triggering medication enters the system.
Choice B rationale
In the event of an anaphylactic reaction, stopping the infusion of the suspected medication is the immediate, non-negotiable priority. This action prevents further antigen-antibody interaction, which is the fundamental driver of the systemic release of histamine and inflammatory mediators.
Choice C rationale
Administering epinephrine is the definitive treatment for anaphylaxis and is given immediately after stopping the drug. While vital for reversing symptoms, the nurse must first disconnect the infusion to prevent ongoing exposure while they prepare to administer the life-saving medication.
Choice D rationale
Calling a Rapid Response or code team is a necessary step to bring additional resources to the bedside. However, the nurse must simultaneously stop the infusion, as every second of continued medication administration increases the potential for irreversible cardiovascular or respiratory collapse.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
This question evaluates the standard of practice for patient identification. It requires applying the principle of using at least two unique patient identifiers, which is the cornerstone of safe care delivery, preventing misidentification errors that can lead to life-threatening complications during medication administration.
Choice A rationale
While the ID armband is a primary source of identification, relying on it exclusively is not the best practice. The Joint Commission mandates the use of at least two patient identifiers to ensure the correct patient is receiving the correct medication.
Choice B rationale
Asking the patient to state their name and date of birth is an effective method of identification. However, this method is incomplete because it does not include the essential step of verifying this verbal information against the official medical records and the patient's armband.
Choice C rationale
Asking the patient to state only their last name is insufficient for accurate identification. Many patients may share the same last name, and this lack of specific, unique identifiers significantly increases the risk of administering medication to the wrong individual during care.
Choice D rationale
Using two unique identifiers and cross-verifying them against the patient's arm band and the medication administration record is the gold standard for safety. This multi-step process minimizes the risk of identification errors and is required by national patient safety standards for healthcare.
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