Interventions were implemented to reduce a patient's pain level to less than 3 out of 10 on the pain scale after taking hydrocodone/acetaminophen.
Which assessment data indicates the goal was not met?
The patient is restless and unable to sleep at 0100 hours.
The patient is performing their self-care with standby assist for the first time during the hospital stay.
The patient obtained 7.5 hours of uninterrupted sleep.
The patient is eating breakfast without complaints of nausea.
The Correct Answer is A
This question requires evaluating the efficacy of pain management interventions. By comparing post-intervention assessments against the predefined therapeutic threshold of less than 3 out of 10, the nurse can identify failed goals, indicating the need for a reassessment and modification of the treatment plan.
Choice A rationale
Restlessness and the inability to sleep at 0100 hours are objective clinical indicators of uncontrolled pain. These behaviors demonstrate that the current analgesic regimen is insufficient, confirming that the therapeutic goal of a pain level less than 3 was not achieved.
Choice B rationale
Improved ability to participate in self-care with minimal assistance is a positive clinical indicator of successful pain management. This suggests the patient is functioning better, which supports the conclusion that the pain interventions have effectively contributed to their functional recovery.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining 7.5 hours of uninterrupted sleep is a clear sign that the patient is comfortable and effectively resting. This outcome indicates the analgesic medication is providing the necessary relief to support restorative sleep, confirming that the therapeutic goal was met.
Choice D rationale
Eating breakfast without nausea indicates that the patient is tolerating their medication and is free from the adverse effects or physiological distress associated with uncontrolled pain. This signifies a successful response to the pain management protocol implemented by the nursing staff.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This question addresses the concept of cross-sensitivity between antibiotic classes. It requires applying the knowledge of shared chemical structures, specifically the beta-lactam ring, which is present in both penicillins and cephalosporins, creating a risk for allergic reactions in susceptible patients with documented hypersensitivities.
Choice A rationale
Sulfonamides are a chemically distinct class of antibiotics that contain a sulfonamide moiety. They do not share the beta-lactam ring structure found in penicillins and therefore do not typically exhibit cross-reactivity with penicillin-allergic patients in clinical practice.
Choice B rationale
Both penicillins and cephalosporins are beta-lactam antibiotics, sharing a common molecular beta-lactam ring structure. Because of this structural similarity, patients with a documented penicillin allergy may demonstrate cross-sensitivity when administered certain cephalosporin medications, especially early-generation agents.
Choice C rationale
Aminoglycosides are a class of antibiotics that function by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis via the 30S ribosomal subunit. They are structurally unrelated to beta-lactams and do not present a clinical risk of cross-reactivity for patients with established penicillin allergies.
Choice D rationale
Macrolides are a class of antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit. They are not structurally similar to penicillins or cephalosporins and are generally considered safe alternatives for patients who have documented allergies to penicillin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This question evaluates the technique for safe ophthalmic medication administration. It requires applying the principles of aseptic technique and proper anatomical placement of drops to ensure maximum therapeutic drug absorption into the eye while minimizing systemic absorption and preventing potential contamination of the medication bottle.
Choice A rationale
Protecting the distal portion of the eyedropper with clean technique is insufficient for preventing contamination. The nurse must use strict sterile technique, ensuring the tip never touches the patient’s eye, eyelid, or any surface to maintain the sterility of the medication.
Choice B rationale
The conjunctival sac is the correct anatomical site for instilling eye drops. Placing the medication into the lower conjunctival sac ensures proper distribution over the surface of the eye, facilitating therapeutic drug absorption for the effective management of glaucoma in the patient.
Choice C rationale
Cleaning the eye must always be done from the inner canthus to the outer canthus. Wiping from outer to inner canthus risks dragging contaminants or debris into the lacrimal duct, increasing the risk of infection or irritation of the ocular tissues.
Choice D rationale
Applying pressure to the bridge of the nose is incorrect. The nurse should apply pressure to the nasolacrimal duct (inner canthus) after administration to minimize systemic absorption of the medication, preventing unwanted cardiovascular or respiratory side effects from the drug entering the bloodstream.
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