A nurse is planning care for a client who has a prescription for alprazolam. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse plan to monitor?
Manifestations of seizure activity
Inability to recall events
Increase in white blood cell count
Decreased urine output
The Correct Answer is B
A. Manifestations of seizure activity are not a typical adverse effect of alprazolam. In fact, seizures could occur if the medication is abruptly discontinued or misused, but they are not a direct, common side effect of alprazolam.
B. Inability to recall events is correct. Alprazolam, which is a benzodiazepine, has a sedative and calming effect on the central nervous system. One of the common side effects of benzodiazepines, including alprazolam, is amnesia or difficulty recalling events (also called anterograde amnesia). This occurs because of the drug's effect on memory and cognitive function.
C. Increase in white blood cell count is not a known side effect of alprazolam. Benzodiazepines typically do not affect white blood cell counts, and an increase in WBC would suggest an infection or other conditions unrelated to alprazolam.
D. Decreased urine output is not typically associated with alprazolam. This drug does not have significant effects on renal function or urine output, so decreased urine output is not an expected adverse effect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Somatic delusions involve beliefs about one's body, such as believing that one’s organs are diseased or that one has an abnormal body condition. The client's statement does not reflect concerns about bodily functions or sensations.
B. Control delusions occur when a person believes that their thoughts or actions are being controlled by an external force. The client’s belief that the government is forcing thoughts into their brain through satellites is a clear example of a control delusion.
C. Persecution delusions involve beliefs that one is being targeted, harmed, or plotted against by others. While the client feels that something is being done to them, the focus of their delusion is more about the control of their thoughts rather than an intentional harm or threat, so this Answer is less fitting.
D. Erotomanic delusions involve a belief that someone, often a famous person, is in love with the individual. The client’s statement does not reflect any romantic or relational belief, making this
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Say to the client, "I can tell that you are upset." This is the best initial approach. Acknowledging the client’s feelings in a calm, non-confrontational way helps de-escalate the situation. It shows empathy and can provide an opportunity for the client to feel heard, potentially reducing aggression. Verbal de-escalation should always be the first step in managing such situations.
B. Engage the client in an activity While engaging the client in an activity can help distract or redirect them, it may not be the best first action if the client is currently in an agitated state. Acknowledging and addressing the emotional distress first is crucial before trying to engage the client in other activities.
C. Move the client to a seclusion room with continuous observation. Seclusion is a last-resort intervention and should not be implemented immediately. It may be appropriate if the client’s behavior escalates to a point where they are a danger to themselves or others, but the priority is to first try to verbally de-escalate and assess the situation further.
D. Administer haloperidol IM to the client. While haloperidol (an antipsychotic) may be used for agitation, medication should not be the first response unless the client is at risk of harming themselves or others and verbal de-escalation efforts have failed. Administering medication without trying less invasive methods is not the priority.
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